THEORY
The correct answer(s):  D

What is the default IPX Ethernet encapsulation?
A.)  SNAP
B.)  Arpa
C.)  802.2
D.)  Novell-Ether
E.)  SAP

Novell-ether is the default LAN encapsulation.  Novell-ether is 802.3.

The correct answer(s):  A

What must be true for two Routers running IGRP to communicate their routes?
A.)  Same autonomous system number
B.)  Connected using Ethernet only
C.)  Use composite metric
D.)  Configured for PPP

For two routers to exchange IGRP routes they must be configured with the same autonomous system number.

The correct answer(s):  C

The following is partial output from a routing table, identify the 2 numbers in the square brackets; '192.168.10.0  [100/1300]  via 10.1.0.1, 00:00:23, Ethernet1'
A.)  100 = metric, 1300 = administrative distance
B.)  100 = administrative distance, 1300 = hop count
C.)  100 = administrative distance, 1300 = metric
D.)  100 = hop count, 1300 = metric

The first number is the Administrative distance and the seconds number is the metric.  In this case it is an IGRP metric.
The correct answer(s):  A B C

Identify 3 methods used to prevent routing loops?
A.)  Split horizon
B.)  Holddown timers
C.)  Poison reverse
D.)  SPF algorithm
E.)  LSP's

Routing loops can be prevented by split horizon, poison reverse and holddown times.  The other two choices relate to Link State.

The correct answer(s):  A

Which statement is true regarding full duplex?
A.)  Allows for transmission and receiving of data simultaneously
B.)  Only works in a multipoint configuration
C.)  Does not affect the bandwidth
D.)  Allows for transmission and receiving of data but not a the same time

Full duplex is just the opposite of half duplex.  It handles traffice in both directions simultaneously.

The correct answer(s):  C

Identify the switching method that receives the entire frame then dispatches it?
A.)  Cut-through
B.)  Receive and forward
C.)  Store and forward
D.)  Fast forward

Store and forward switching receives the entire frame before dispatching it.

The correct answer(s):  B

Identify the purpose of ICMP?
A.)  Avoiding routing loops
B.)  Send error and control messages
C.)  Transporting routing updates
D.)  Collision detection

ICMP is used to send error and control messages.  Ping uses ICMP to carry the echo-request and echo-reply.

The correct answer(s):  D

Which statement is true regarding the user exec and privileged exec mode?
A.)  The '?' only works in Privileged exec
B.)  They are identical
C.)  They both require the enable password
D.)  User exec is a subset of the privileged exec

The user exec mode is a subset of the privileged exec mode.  Only a certain number of commands are available at the user exec mode.
The correct answer(s):  B

Which OSI layer end to end communication, segmentation and re-assembly?
A.)  Network
B.)  Transport
C.)  Physical
D.)  Application
E.)  Data-Link
F.)  Presentation

Layer 4 the Transport layer performs this function.

The correct answer(s):  C

What IP command would you use to test the entire IP stack?
A.)  Stack-test
B.)  Arp
C.)  Telnet
D.)  Ping
E.)  Trace

Because Telnet is an application and it resides at the top of the stack it traverses down the stack and up the stack at the receiving end.

The correct answer(s):  A D

Identify the 2 hardware components used to manage and/or configure a router?
A.)  Auxiliary port
B.)  ROM port
C.)  Management port
D.)  Console port

The 2 hardware ports used to configure the router are the console and auxiliary ports.

The correct answer(s):  B

What is the default bandwidth of a serial connection?
A.)  1200 baud
B.)  1.544 Mbps (T1)
C.)  10 Mbps
D.)  96Kpbs

The default bandwidth is T1.

The correct answer(s):  A D

Identify 2 functions of IPX access-lists?
A.)  Control SAP traffic
B.)  Limit number of Novell servers on a network
C.)  Limit number of workstations on a network
D.)  Block IPX traffic

IPX access lists are used to restrict IPX traffic and SAP broadcasts.

The correct answer(s):  A D

Identify 2 HDLC characteristics?
A.)  Default serial encapsulation
B.)  Open standard
C.)  Supports Stacker compression
D.)  Supports point-to-point and multipoint

HDLC is the default serial encapsulation and supports point-to-point and multipoint.  It is not an open standard and does not support compression.

Incorrect.
The correct answer(s):  C D E

Identify 3 IP applications?
A.)  AURP
B.)  ARP
C.)  Telnet
D.)  SMTP
E.)  DNS
F.)  RARP

ARP and AURP are not part the application layer of the TCP/IP stack.  SMTP - Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, Telnet, DNS - Domain Name Services (name to IP resolution).

The correct answer(s):  A E F

Identify 3 LAN technologies?
A.)  FDDI
B.)  HDLC
C.)  HSSI
D.)  X.25
E.)  802.3
F.)  802.5

The question is asking for 3 LAN technologies, HDLC, HSSI and X.25 are all WAN technologies.

The correct answer(s):  A D E F

Identify the 4 that are not LAN technologies?
A.)  HDLC
B.)  FDDI
C.)  802.5
D.)  HSSI
E.)  SDLC
F.)  Frame Relay

802.5 and FDDI are LAN technologies

The correct answer(s):  E

Which OSI layer supports the communication component of an application?
A.)  Data-Link
B.)  Physical
C.)  Session
D.)  Presentation
E.)  Application
F.)  Transport

Layer 7 the Application layer performs this function.

The correct answer(s):  D

Identify the length of an IPX address and it's components?
A.)  80 bits, 48 bits network and 32 bits node
B.)  32 bits, 16 bits network and 16 bits node
C.)  None of the above
D.)  80 bits, 32 bits network and 48 bits node

IPX address has 2 components; network and node.  The network address is 32 bits and the node is 48 bits, total of 80 bits.

The correct answer(s):  D

Identify the administrative distance and appropriate routing protocol?
A.)  RIP = 255, IGRP = 100
B.)  RIP = 100, IGRP = 120
C.)  RIP = 1, IGRP = 0
D.)  RIP = 120, IGRP = 100

The administrative distance for RIP is 120 and IGRP is 100.  The lower the AD the better the routing information.

The correct answer(s):  A

Which OSI layer incorporates the MAC address and the LLC?
A.)  Data link
B.)  Network
C.)  Physcial
D.)  Transport

Layer 2 the Data-Link layer incorporates the MAC and LLC sublayers

The correct answer(s):  C

If configuring a Cisco router to connect to a non-Cisco router across a Frame Relay network, which encapsulation type would you select?
A.)  Q933a
B.)  ISDN
C.)  IETF
D.)  CISCO
E.)  ANSI

There are two types of Frame Relay encapsulations; Cisco and IETF.  IETF is required when connecting a Cisco to a non-Cisco router.

The correct answer(s):  A C

Identify the 2 items that TCP and UDP share in common?
A.)  Both use port numbers to identify upper level applications
B.)  Operate at the Network layer
C.)  Both are Transport protocols
D.)  Both are reliable communications

TCP and UPD are both layer 4 Tranport protocols and both use port number to identify upper level applications.

The correct answer(s):  A B E

Identify 3 characteristics of IP RIP?
A.)  Distance vector
B.)  Administrative distance is 120
C.)  Periodic updates every 60 seconds
D.)  Uses a composite metric
E.)  Can load balance

IP RIP is a distance vector protocol, it can load balance up to 4 equal cost paths and it's rating of trustworthiness is 120.

The correct answer(s):  A
Which of the following is a layer 2 device?
A.)  Switch
B.)  Router
C.)  Repeater
D.)  Hub

A Hub and Repeater are layer 1 devices.  A Router is a layer 3 device.
The correct answer(s):  C

Identify the definition of demarcation?
A.)  Date in which the WAN service contract expires
B.)  Cabling which extends from the WAN service provider to the customer
C.)  Division of responsibility, where the CPE ends and the local loop begins
D.)  Equipment which is located at the customer premises

Demarcation is the point in which repsonsibility changes hands.

The correct answer(s):  B C E

Identify the 3 key features of the Cisco Discovery Protocol?
A.)  Off by default
B.)  Will allow for the discovery of layer 3 addresses on neighbor routers
C.)  Verify connectivity
D.)  Open standard
E.)  Does not require any layer 3 protocols to be configured

CDP is used for 2 basic reasons; neighbor connectivity and layer 3 discovery if configured.  It is proprietary and is on by default.

The correct answer(s):  A C E

Identify the 3 characteristics of IPX RIP?
A.)  Distance vector
B.)  Does not support multiple paths
C.)  60 second updates
D.)  Default encapsulation is SAP
E.)  Uses ticks and hop count as a metric

IPX RIP is a distance vector routing protocol, it does support multiple paths, the default encapsulation is 'novell-ether', it uses tick count as a primary metric and hop count as a tie breaker and it sends it’s updates every 60 seconds.

The correct answer(s):  D

Identify the access-list range for an extended IP access-list?
A.)  800 - 899
B.)  1 - 99
C.)  1000 - 1099
D.)  100 - 199

IP extened access-lists use the number range of 100-199.

The correct answer(s):  A

Identify the X.25 addressing standard?
A.)  X.121
B.)  X.25a
C.)  ITU-1
D.)  Q933a

The X.25 layer 3 addressing standards is X.121.

The correct answer(s):  A C E

Identify 3 features of IGRP?
A.)  Composite metric
B.)  New horizon
C.)  Flash updates
D.)  60 periodic updates
E.)  Poison reverse

IGRP uses a composite metric made up of bandwidth and delay by default, it updates every 60 seconds and will trigger an update if the  topology changes.

The correct answer(s):  D

Where is the backup configuration file stored?
A.)  RAM
B.)  ROM
C.)  Console
D.)  NVRAM

One location to store the backup configuration is NVRAM.

The correct answer(s):  B

Identify the correct pair of Novell Ethernet encapsulation and Cisco terminology?
A.)  Ethernet II, Snap
B.)  Ethernet 802.3, Novell-Ether
C.)  Ethernet SNAP, Arpa
D.)  Ethernet 802.2, Snap

The default IPX LAN encapsulation is Novell-Ether which is 802.3

The correct answer(s):  A C E

Identify 3 characteristics regarding IP access-lists?
A.)  Can be configured as a standard access-list
B.)  Can be run from another router running IP
C.)  Can be configured as a named access-list
D.)  Are the same as IPX access-lists
E.)  Can be configured as an extended access-list

There are 3 types of IP access-lists; standard, extended and named.  Named access-lists can be either standard or extended depending on how they are configured.

The correct answer(s):  A B D

Identify 3 ways in which a router can be configured?
A.)  TFTP
B.)  Nvram
C.)  Ping
D.)  Console
E.)  Trace

Changes to the configuration can be entered via the console, a config stored in NVRAM or on a TFTP server.  Trace and ping are tools to verify connectivity.

The correct answer(s):  B

A traffic light is an example of what type of mechanism?
A.)  Collision detection
B.)  Flow control
C.)  Sequence numbering
D.)  Network management

A Traffice light is an example of flow control.

The correct answer(s):  D

Windowing is a type of?
A.)  Negative acknowledgement
B.)  Address resolution
C.)  Layer transition mechanism
D.)  Flow control

Windowing allow the sender and receiver to dictate how much information that can be received prior to an acknowledgement.  It is a form of flow control.

The correct answer(s):  C E

Identify the 2 types of access-list filters that control SAP traffic?
A.)  Novell-ether
B.)  Arpa
C.)  Input-sap-filter
D.)  Round-robin
E.)  Output-sap-filter

SAP's can be blocked by 2 methods; inbound and outbound.

The correct answer(s):  B C D

Identify the 3 guidelines for routers in the same autonomous system?
A.)  Must be configured for IGRP or RIP
B.)  Interconnected
C.)  Assigned the same autonomous system number
D.)  Configured for the same routing protocol
E.)  Must be same model of router

Autonomous system must be interconnected, assigned the same AS # and configured with the same routing protocol.

The correct answer(s):  C

Identify the hardware component used to store buffers, tables, running-configuration etc?
A.)  NVRAM
B.)  ROM
C.)  RAM
D.)  Flash

RAM is the dynamic memory area.  ROM contains the boot strap code, NVRAM contains the startup-config and Flash contains the IOS.

The correct answer(s):  B C D

Identify 3 UDP characteristics?
A.)  Reliable communication protocol
B.)  Applications that use UDP must incorporate reliability
C.)  Connnection-less oriented
D.)  Incorporates no handshaking

UPD is a layer 4 Transport protocol.  It is connection-less because it does establish a connection therefore the 3 step handshake is not needed, it does NOT implement any flow control or acknowledgments.  Any application that uses UDP must incorporate any needed reliability.

The correct answer(s):  E

Identify the IPX standard access-list number range?
A.)  600 - 699
B.)  1000 - 1099
C.)  1 - 99
D.)  100 - 199
E.)  800 - 899

IPX standard access-list range is 800-899.

The correct answer(s):  C

Which OSI layer provides best effort end to end packet delivery?
A.)  Data-Link
B.)  Presentation
C.)  Network
D.)  Transport
E.)  Physical
F.)  Application

Layer 3 the Network layer performs this function.

The correct answer(s):  B D

Identify the 2 methods to modify the routers boot sequence?
A.)  Setup program
B.)  Boot system commands
C.)  RXBoot
D.)  Config-register

'Boot system' command the the 'config-register' are used to manipulate the boot sequence.

The correct answer(s):  A B C

Identify the 3 pieces of hardware you would not install to prevent broadcasts?
A.)  Switch
B.)  Repeater
C.)  Bridge
D.)  Router

Router are  implemented not only to break up networks into smaller segments but  they are used to block broadcasts.

The correct answer(s):  A D

Identify 2 features of PPP PAP authentication?
A.)  Username and password is sent in clear text
B.)  Authentication messages are sent periodically during the connection
C.)  More secure than CHAP
D.)  Remote node is control of authentication process

PPP PAP authentication sends the username and passwords in clear text and the remote node initiates the authentication process.

The correct answer(s):  C

Identify the switching method that examines the destination MAC address as the frame is being received then begins forwarding the frame prior to receiving the entire frame?
A.)  Fragment-free
B.)  Store and Forward
C.)  Cut-through
D.)  Fast forward

Cut through examines the destination MAC address and begins forwarding the frame prior to receiving the entire frame.

The correct answer(s):  C

Identify 1 characteristic of RARP?
A.)  IP to MAC address translation
B.)  Connectionless delivery of packets
C.)  Can be used to initiate remote O/S load sequence
D.)  Generates error and control messages

Reverse Address Resolution Protocol is used to obtain a layer 3 address if the MAC address is known which then facilitates the loading of the O/S.

The correct answer(s):  D

Identify the protocol to test connectivity without configuring any layer 3 protocols?
A.)  TCP
B.)  Ping
C.)  IP
D.)  CDP
E.)  Telnet

CDP can be used to verify connnectivity prior to any layer 3 protocols being configured.

The correct answer(s):  A

LMI operates between the Frame Switch and what other device?
A.)  CPE device
B.)  Another Frame Switch
C.)  X.25 switch
D.)  Novell File Server

LMI stands for local management interface.  It operates between the Frame Relay switch and the customer equipment.

The correct answer(s):  B

Identify IPX SAP and it's purpose?
A.)  Sonet Access Pipe - interface to Sonet ring
B.)  Service Advertising Protocol - advertise services
C.)  Server Appletalk Protocol - appletalk directory services
D.)  Service Access Point - identify upper layer protocols

SAP is an Novell protocol to advertise services.

The correct answer(s):  A E

Identify the default values that make up IGRP's composite metric?
A.)  Bandwidth
B.)  Load
C.)  Reliability
D.)  MTU
E.)  Delay

IGRP can be configured to use all 5 within it's metric.  By default it uses bandwidth and delay.

The correct answer(s):  B

Identify the default serial encapsulation?
A.)  ISDN
B.)  HDLC
C.)  SDLC
D.)  Frame Relay
E.)  PPP

The default serial encapsulation is HDLC.

The correct answer(s):  D

Identify the purpose of ARP?
A.)  Avoiding routing loops
B.)  Determining a workstation's IP address
C.)  Sending a directed broadcast
D.)  Determining a workstation's MAC address

ARP is used to find a devices MAC address given an IP address.

The correct answer(s):  D

What is the purpose of the DLCI?
A.)  Identifies the remote routers
B.)  Contained with a 802.2 frame for routing purposes
C.)  Used with PPP during authentication
D.)  Identifies the PVC in a Frame Relay network

DLCI stands for Data Link Connection Identifier.  It identifies the local PVC.

The correct answer(s):  B C E

Identify 3 characteristics of the Network layer (OSI layer 3)?
A.)  Connnection oriented
B.)  Path determination
C.)  Supports multiplexing
D.)  Manages sessions
E.)  Packet forwarding

The network layer is respsonible for routing which entails learning the paths, selecting the best path and forwarding the packet.  Because it services multiple layer 4 protocols is multiplexes.

The correct answer(s):  A D E

Identify 3 characteristics of switches?
A.)  Increase available bandwidth
B.)  Decrease broadcast traffic
C.)  Support full duplex in a multipoint topology
D.)  Make fowarding decision using MAC address
E.)  Create collision domains

Switches operate at layer 2.  They increase bandwidth by reducing the number of devics sharing the media.  They isolate collisions.  Like a bridge they forward traffice based upon layer 2 address/ MAC address.

The correct answer(s):  E

Which OSI layer handles physical address, network topology?
A.)  Presentation
B.)  Physical
C.)  Transport
D.)  Application
E.)  Data-Link
F.)  Network

Layer 2 the Data-Link layer performs this function.

The correct answer(s):  B D

Identify 2 reasons for disabling CDP?
A.)  If the router is not configured for RIP
B.)  Save bandwidth by eliminating overhead
C.)  If the router is configured for Appletalk
D.)  When connected to a non-Cisco router

CDP can be disabled here are a couple of reasons.  Connecting a Cisco router to a non-Cisco router.  Don't want to exchange CDP information to save bandwidth.

The correct answer(s):  A C D

Identify 3 characteristics of ISDN?
A.)  Transports voice and data
B.)  Transports voice only
C.)  Support both BRI and PRI
D.)  Runs over existing phone lines
E.)  Same as X.25

ISDN supports voice, data, and video.  It runs over existing phone lines and supports 128K (BRI) and T1 (PRI).

The correct answer(s):  B C D

Identify the 3 characteristics of IGRP?
A.)  Uses hop count as a metric
B.)  Supports multiple unequal paths
C.)  Administrative distance is 100
D.)  Configured with an Automous system number
E.)  Link state

IGRP is a distance vector routing protocol, it's degree of trustworthiness is 100, it can support up to 6 un-equal paths and must be configured with an automous system number.

The correct answer(s):  B D

Identify 2 features of PPP CHAP authentication?
A.)  Username and password is sent in clear text
B.)  Authentication messages are sent periodically during the connection
C.)  Less secure then PAP
D.)  Local router 'challenges' the remote router

PPP CHAP authentication message are sent periodically during the connection by challenging the other end of the connection.
It is more secure than PAP and passwords and username are encrypted.

The correct answer(s):  D

Identify the default IPX serial encapsulation?
A.)  Novell-Ether
B.)  SDLC
C.)  SNAP
D.)  HDLC

The default IPX serial encapsultion is HDLC.

The correct answer(s):  B

Identify the hardware component that stores the backup configuration?
A.)  RAM
B.)  NVRAM
C.)  Flash
D.)  ROM

NVRAM contains the backup config.  RAM is the dynamic memory area,  ROM contains the boot strap code and Flash contains the IOS.

The correct answer(s):  D

Identify the extended IP access-list number range?
A.)  600 - 699
B.)  1 - 99
C.)  900 - 999
D.)  100 - 199

The extended IP access-list range is 100-199.

The correct answer(s):  B C D

Identify 3 Fast Ethernet technologies?
A.)  100 Base FastEther
B.)  100 Base FX
C.)  100 Base T4
D.)  100 Base TX

100 BaseFastEther is false.  100 Base FX, TX and T4 are all valid.

The correct answer(s):  B

Identify the OSI layer which is responsible for end-to-end connections?
A.)  Network
B.)  Transport
C.)  Session
D.)  Data link
E.)  TCP

Layer 4 is the Transport layer and is responsible for end-to-end connections.

The correct answer(s):  C D

Identify the 2 characteristics regarding MAC addresses?
A.)  Contains a network portion and host portion
B.)  Always assigned by System Administrator
C.)  48 bits long
D.)  Contains a vendor code and serial number

MAC addresses are assigned by the vendor.  Each MAC address is 48 bits long and made up of 24 bits vendor code and 24 bits serial number.

The correct answer(s):  B

Identify the number range for IPX SAP filters?
A.)  900 - 999
B.)  1000 - 1099
C.)  800 -899
D.)  100 - 199

The IPX SAP filtering range is 1000-1099.

The correct answer(s):  D

What is the purpose of ARP?
A.)  IP to host name resolution
B.)  Host name to IP address resolution
C.)  Mac to IP address resolution
D.)  IP to Mac address resolution

Address Resolution Protocol resolves the MAC address if the IP address is known.  It is a layer 3 protocol.

The correct answer(s):  F

Which OSI layer establishes, maintains and terminates sessions between hosts?
A.)  Application
B.)  Physical
C.)  Data-Link
D.)  Presentation
E.)  Network
F.)  Session

Layer 5 the Session layer performs this function.

The correct answer(s):  C

Which statement is true regarding Administrative distance?
A.)  It is a metric
B.)  Number of hops between two routers
C.)  Trustworthiness of the routing information
D.)  RIP Administrative distance is 100

Administrative distance is rating of trustworthiness of the routing information.  The lower the AD the better the information.

The correct answer(s):  C

Identify the purpose of the Ping command?
A.)  Share routing information with a neighbor router
B.)  Transmit user data when buffers are full
C.)  Test connectivity at layer 3
D.)  Test entire protocol stack

The ping command tests layer 3 connectivity.

The correct answer(s):  C

Identify the order of the 5 step encapsulation?
1. Create the segment 
2. Convert the frame to bits 
3. Create the packet 
4. Create the frame 
5. User creates the data
A.)  1,2,4,2,5
B.)  2,1,3,4,5
C.)  5,1,3,4,2
D.)  5,3,4,1,2

Cisco 5 step encapsulation. 
1) User creates Data
2) Data is converted into a segment at layer 4
3) The segment is converted to packet at layer 3
4) The packet it converted into a frame at layer 2
5) The frame is converted into bits at layer 1

The correct answer(s):  C

The Cisco IOS is stored where?
A.)  ROM
B.)  CD
C.)  Flash
D.)  NVRAM

By default the Cisco IOS is stored in flash.

The correct answer(s):  D

Sequence and acknowledgement numbers are used for?
A.)  Layer transitioning
B.)  Flow control
C.)  Port number addressing
D.)  Reliability

TCP uses sequence numbers and acknowledgements to implement reliability.

The correct answer(s):  B

Identify IPX GNS and it's purpose?
A.)  Go Network Server - sends a print job to a network server
B.)  Get Nearest Server - locate the nearest server
C.)  Guaranteed Network Services - allocates resources to users
D.)  Get Notes Server - locates Domino Server

GNS stands for Get Nearest Server, initiated by a workstation.

The correct answer(s):  D

Identify the true statement regarding subnetting?
A.)  Allows for more host address
B.)  Borrow bits from the network portion of the address
C.)  Allows for unlimited number of networks
D.)  Borrow bits from the host portion of the address

Subnetting involves borrowing bits for the host portion of the address to be used to subnet addressing.

The correct answer(s):  A

Inverse ARP serves what purpose?
A.)  Method for a local router to introduce itself to the remote end of the connection
B.)  Broadcast a routing table update
C.)  Identify MAC addresses if the IP address is known
D.)  Sent every 10 seconds used to verify the Frame Switch is still active

Inverse ARP operates in a Frame Relay network so  the two end points can identify themselves to each other.

The correct answer(s):  A B D

Identify 3 characteristics of a MAC address?
A.)  Burned into the NIC
B.)  48 bits long
C.)  Length is 32 bits
D.)  Used to deliver the frame to the end device
E.)  Contains a network portion and a host portion

The MAC address is 48 bits long not 32.  It does NOT contain a network and host portion with the address.  It is used to deliver the frame to the destination device.

The correct answer(s):  A C D

Identify 3 IP routing protocols?
A.)  RIP
B.)  AURP
C.)  OSPF
D.)  IGRP
E.)  ARP
F.)  ICMP

AURP and ICMP are not routing protocols.

The correct answer(s):  D

Identify the type of routing protocol that exchanges entire routing tables at regular intervals?
A.)  Link state
B.)  Interior gateway protocols
C.)  Appletalk routing
D.)  Distance vector

Distance Vector routing protocols exchange entire routing tables with it's neighbors.  Link State routing protocols exchange LSP's to share information regarding the networks they know.

The correct answer(s):  C

Identify the type of hardware required to connect a Token ring network to an Ethernet network?
A.)  Repeater
B.)  TR-Enet
C.)  Router
D.)  Token Ring to Ethernet translation hub

Routers are used to connect dissimiliar networks with different access-methods, like connecting Token Ring to Ethernet.

The correct answer(s):  A B D

Identify 3 characteristics regarding CDP?
A.)  On by default
B.)  Shows only directly connected neighbors
C.)  Requires IP or IPX
D.)  60 second update interval by default
E.)  30 second updates interval by default

CDP stands for Cisco Discovery Protocol.  It is used to discover directly connected neighbors, it is on by default and has a 60 second update interval by default.

The correct answer(s):  B E

Identify 2 transport layer protocols?
A.)  IP
B.)  TCP
C.)  CDP
D.)  ARP
E.)  UDP

TPC and UDP are 2 layer4 Transport protocols.

The correct answer(s):  B D

Identify 2 features of X.25?
A.)  Supports only IP
B.)  Utilizes switched and permanent virtual circuits
C.)  Contains minimal flow control and error recovery
D.)  Utilizes LAPB as it's data-link protocol

X.25 utilixes LAPB and uses switched and permanent VC's.  It supports multiple layer protocols and is heavy laden with error detection and correction mechanisms.

The correct answer(s):  C

Identify the purpose of the Trace command?
A.)  Explorer packet transmitting routing information
B.)  Test connectivity
C.)  Determine the path a packet is taking through the network
D.)  Transmits user data when buffers are full

The trace command is used to determine the path a packet has taken through the network.

The correct answer(s):  C

Identify the purpose of the TCP 3 step handshake?
A.)  Setup a un-reliable connection
B.)  Initialize routing tables
C.)  Synchronize sequence numbers between hosts
D.)  Connection tear down process

The 3 step handshake establishes the parameters required for a TCP connection.  During the handshake process sequence numbers are synchronized allowing for the end points to properly acknowledge and re-assemble the segments.

The correct answer(s):  B C

Identify 2 PPP characteristics?
A.)  Is proprietary to Cisco
B.)  Supports authentication
C.)  Support compression
D.)  Run on a multi-access network

PPP supports authentication; PAP and CHAP.  It also supports compression; Stacker and Predictor.

The correct answer(s):  B

Which statement is true regarding half duplex?
A.)  Only works in a point-to-point configuration
B.)  Allows for transmitting and receiving but not a the same time
C.)  Allow for transmitting and receiving of data simultaneously 
D.)  Doubles the bandwidth

Half duplex is analogous to a single a lane bridge, it can handle traffic in both directions but no at the same time.

The correct answer(s):  A

Identify the purpose of the wildcard mask?
A.)  Match a certain portion of the IP address while ignoring the rest of the address
B.)  Determine the class of the IP address
C.)  Determine the network portion of an IP address
D.)  Hide the host portion of an IP address

The purpose of the wildcard mask to match a certain portion of the IP address while ignoring the rest.

The correct answer(s):  A

Identify the OSI layer associated with bits?
A.)  Physical
B.)  Network
C.)  Binary
D.)  Data link

The Physical layer converts the frames to bits.

The correct answer(s):  C

Identify the type of routing protocol that maintains a topological database of the network?
A.)  Topological state
B.)  Shortest Path First
C.)  Link state
D.)  Distance vector

Link State routing protocols maintain a database that lists all the networks in the internetwork.

The correct answer(s):  A B D

Identify the 3 major functions at layer 3 of the OSI model?
A.)  Forwarding process
B.)  Logical addressing
C.)  End-to-end connnections
D.)  Path selection
E.)  MAC address examination
F.)  Network monitoring

Layer 3 determines the path, forwards the packet and implements software or logicial addressing.

The correct answer(s):  A B

Identify the 2 rules used when configuring a Distance Vector routing protocol?
A.)  Physically connected network(s)
B.)  Configure the classful address, no subnets
C.)  Enable CDP so neighbors can be detected
D.)  Configure all networks in Area0

When configuring a Distance Vector routing protocol only assign the physically connected networks with the classful address only.

The correct answer(s):  A B C

Identify 3 characteristics of an IP address?
A.)  Contains a network portion and a host portion
B.)  32 bits long
C.)  Unique to each network
D.)  Part of the default Cisco configuration
E.)  Referred to as the hardware address

An IP address is 32 bits long, it is referred as the logical or software address.  It contains a network and host portion.  Each IP address is unique.

The correct answer(s):  A C E

Identify 3 feature of access-lists?
A.)  Implicit deny will deny any packets not matched
B.)  Processed sequentially from bottom to top
C.)  Processed sequentially from top to bottom
D.)  If a packet is denied it would be tested against the remaining statements in the access-list
E.)  Once a match is made the packet is either denied or permitted
F.)  Enabled on all interfaces by default

Access-list are processed from top to bottom, once a match occurs the packe is either denied or permitted and is no longer tested and if no match occurs the packet is denied via the implicit deny.

The correct answer(s):  E

Which OSI layer performs code conversion, code formatting and encryption?
A.)  Physical
B.)  Data-Link
C.)  Application
D.)  Transport
E.)  Presentation
F.)  Network

Layer 6 the Presentation layers performs this function.

The correct answer(s):  A C E

Identify the 3 methods routers learn paths to destinations?
A.)  Dynamic routing
B.)  None of the above, configured by default
C.)  Default routes
D.)  Administrative distance
E.)  Static routes

Routers can learn paths via 3 different sources; static routes, dynamic routing protocols (ie RIP) and default routes.

The correct answer(s):  C
Identify the purpose of the following command 'ip route  192.168.100.0  255.255.255.0  10.1.0.1'
A.)  Enabling a dynamic routing protocol
B.)  Creating a static route to the 10.1.0.0 network
C.)  Teaches the router about the distant network 192.168.100.0 and how it can be reached via 10.1.0.1
D.)  Assigining the IP address 192.168.100.0 to an interface

A static routes teaches the router about a distant network and the next hop to reach that network.  Command syntax:
ip route network-address subnet-mask next-hop-address

The correct answer(s):  A

Based upon the 1st octet rule identify the range for a Class A address?
A.)  1 - 126
B.)  192 - 223
C.)  128 - 191
D.)  1 - 191

Class A address has the 1st octet between 1 - 126.  Class B between 128 - 191 and Class C between 192 - 223.

The correct answer(s):  A

What does a Standard IP Access-list use as test criteria?
A.)  IP source address
B.)  IP source and destination address, protocol numbers and port numbers
C.)  IPX source and destination address
D.)  Source MAC address

Standard IP access list use only source address.

The correct answer(s):  D

What is the function of the Transport layer and which protocols reside there?
A.)  MAC addressing - IP
B.)  Interhost communication - SQL, NFS
C.)  Best effort Packet delivery - TCP, UDP
D.)  End-to-end connections - TCP, UDP

Layer 4, the Transport layer, is responsible for end-to-end connections.  The two TCP/IP protocols that reside there are TCP and UDP.

The correct answer(s):  C D E

Identify the 3 Internet layer IP protocols?
A.)  NetBios
B.)  IPX
C.)  ARP
D.)  IP
E.)  RARP

NetBios and IPX are not layer 3 IP protocols.  IP - Internet Protcol, ARP - Address Resolution Protocol and RARP - Reverse Address Resolution Protocol.

The correct answer(s):  B

IPX routing updates occur how often?
A.)  Every 30 seconds
B.)  Every 60 seconds
C.)  Only as needed
D.)  When the remote router asks for an update

IPX RIP updates are exchanged every 60 seconds.

The correct answer(s):  B E F

Identify 3 methods not used to prevent routing loops?
A.)  Holddown timers
B.)  Sequence numbers
C.)  Triggered updates
D.)  Split horizon
E.)  Area hierarchies
F.)  Order of router startup

Area hierarchies, sequence numbers and order of router startup all relate to Link State routing protocols which do NOT incur routing loops.

The correct answer(s):  A

Identify the hardware component that stores the bootstrap program?
A.)  ROM
B.)  NVRAM
C.)  Booter load
D.)  RAM
E.)  Flash

 ROM contains the boot strap code.

The correct answer(s):  D

Which OSI layer provides mechanical, electrical, procedural for activating, maintaining physical link?
A.)  Presentation
B.)  Network
C.)  Application
D.)  Physical
E.)  Transport
F.)  Data-Link

Layer 1 the Physical layer performs this function.

The correct answer(s):  C D

Identify 2 characteristics of  PPP?
A.)  Uses LLC to establish the link
B.)  Default serial encapsulation
C.)  Support multiple layer 3 protocols
D.)  Offers two types of authentication; PAP and CHAP

PPP is not the default encapsulation and uses LCP not LLC to establish the link.  It support multiple layer 3 protocols and supports authentication.

The correct answer(s):  B C E

Identify 3 characteristics of a connection oriented protocol?
A.)  Path determination
B.)  Flow control
C.)  Acknowledgements
D.)  Uses hop count as metric
E.)  3 step handshake

Connection oriented protcols must first establish the connection (3 step handshake), employ methods to ackowledge the receipt of data (acknowledgements) and slow down the flow of data if required (flow control).

The correct answer(s):  C

What is the maximum hop count for IP RIP?
A.)  Infinity
B.)  16
C.)  15
D.)  1

15 is the maximum hop count, underscoring the size limitation of RIP.

The correct answer(s):  D

What is Cisco's default encapsulation method on serial interfaces?
A.)  ANSI
B.)  Cisco
C.)  Q933a
D.)  HDLC

Cisco's implementation of HDLC is only compatible with Cisco routers.  It is the default encapsulation type for serial interfaces.

The correct answer(s):  C

Which of the following is a characteristic of a switch, but not of a repeater?
A.)  Switches forward packets based on the IPX or IP address in the frame
B.)  Switches forward packets based on the IP address in the frame
C.)  Switches forward packets based on the MAC address in the frame
D.)  Switches forward packets based only on the IP address in the packet

A repeater regenerates the signal it receives, a switch makes decisions based upon MAC addresses to determine whether a frame should be forwarded.  Repeaters forward all packets.

The correct answer(s):  B

Ping uses which Internet layer protocol?
A.)  RARP
B.)  ICMP
C.)  ARP
D.)  FTP

Internet Control Message Protocol - ICMP is a management protocol and messaging service provider for IP.  Its messages are carried as IP datagrams.

ICMP is used in the following events:

Destination Unreachable - If a router cannot send an IP packet any further, it uses an ICMP echo to send a message back to the sender notifying it that the remote node is unreachable.

Buffer Full - If a routers memory buffer is full ICMP will send out a message to the originator.

Hops - Each IP datagram is assigned a path.  This consists of hops.  If it goes through the maximum number of hops, the packet is discarded and the discarding router sends an ICMP echo to the host. 

Ping - Ping use ICMP echo message to check connectivity.

The correct answer(s):  A

Which is true regarding store-and-forward switching method?
A.)  Latency varies depending on frame-length
B.)  Latency is constant
C.)  It is default for all Cisco switches
D.)  It only reads the destination hardware address before forwarding the frame

Store-and-Forward switching copies the entire frame into its buffer and computes the CRC.  If a CRC error is detected, the frame is discarded, or if the frame is a runt (less than 64 bytes including the CRC) or a giant (more than 1518 bytes including the CRC).  The LAN switch then looks up the destination address in its switching table and determines the outgoing interface.  The frame is then forwarded to the outgoing interface.  Cisco Catalyst 5000 switches uses the Store-and-Forward method.  The problem with Store-and-Forward switching is latency is increased.  Latency also varies with the size of the frame.  The larger the frame, the more latency associated.  This of course is due to the fact that the entire frame is copied into its buffer before being forwarded.

The correct answer(s):  A C D

Which three of the following are true statements about connection-oriented sessions?
A.)  The segments delivered are acknowledged back to the sender upon their reception
B.)  Any segments not acknowledged the are retransmitted by the receiver
C.)  A manageable data flow is maintained in order to avoid congestion, overloading and loss of any data
D.)  Segments are sequenced back into their proper order upon arrival at their destination

Connection-oriented services are useful for transmitting data from applications that are intolerant of delays and packet re-sequencing.  FTP and Telnet applications are based on connection-oriented services as well as some voice and video programs.  Any segment that is not acknowledged by the recevied is retransmitted by the sender.

The correct answer(s):  B

What does a metric of 16 hops represent when using RIP?
A.)  Number of hops to the destination
B.)  Destination unreachable
C.)  Number of routers
D.)  Bandwidth

Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is a distance vector routing protocol that used hop count as its metric.  The maximum hop count is 15, 16 hops is considered unreachable.  RIP updates are broadcast every 30 seconds by default.  RIP has an administrative distance of 120.

The correct answer(s):  C E

You need to come up with a TCP/IP addressing scheme for your company. Which two factors must you consider when you define the subnet mask for the network?
A.)  The location of DHCP servers
B.)  The volume of traffic on each subnet
C.)  The number of subnets on the network
D.)  The location of the default gateway
E.)  The number of host IDs on each subnet

When determining which subnet mask to use, you must determine how many hosts and how many subnets are required.

The correct answer(s):  B

What is the difference between TCP and UDP?
A.)  TCP is connection-oriented; UDP uses acknowledgements only
B.)  TCP is connection-oriented; UDP is connectionless
C.)  Both TCP and UDP are connection-oriented, but only TCP uses windowing
D.)  TCP and UDP both have sequencing, but UDP is connectionless

TCP provides guaranteed connection oriented delivery of packets, UDP does not.

The correct answer(s):  A

What does the 'S' mean when looking at the routing table?
A.)  Statically connected
B.)  Directly connected
C.)  Dynamically attached
D.)  Shutdown route

Statically connected routes are those that an administrator has manually entered into the routing table.

The correct answer(s):  C

Why would you use static routing instead of dynamic routing?
A.)  When you want automatic updates of the routing tables
B.)  All the time
C.)  When you have very few routes and want to conserve bandwidth
D.)  When you have a gateway of last resort

Static routes are typically used when there are very few routes and you want to conserve bandwidth.  Since routing protocols are constantly sending their updates across the wire, it can cause a great deal of congestion.

The correct answer(s):  B

On Cisco catalyst 5000 how would you set the second port on the controller in the first slot to full duplex?
A.)  Set port duplex 1/1 full
B.)  Set port duplex 1/2 full
C.)  Set port duplex 0/1 full
D.)  Set port duplex 0/2 full

The syntax is: set type duplex slot/port <full/half>

The correct answer(s):  C
What does the acronym ARP stand for?
A.)  Address Resolution Phase
B.)  ARP Resolution Protocol
C.)  Address Resolution Protocol
D.)  Address Recall Protocol

The Address Resulution Protocol (ARP) resolved IP addresses to MAC addresses.

The correct answer(s):  C

What is the default encapsulation of Netware 3.12?
A.)  Ethernet_II
B.)  802.5
C.)  802.2
D.)  802.3

The 802.2 Frame Type is the default frame-type for Netware 3.12.

The correct answer(s):  B

Regarding frame relay, which of the following statements are true?
A.)  You must use ANSI encapsulation if connecting to non-Cisco equipment
B.)  You must use IETF encapsulation if connecing to non-Cisco equipment
C.)  You must use Q.933a encapsulation if connecing to non-Cisco equipment
D.)  You must use Cisco encapsulation if connecting to non-Cisco equipment

Cisco's encapsulation for Frame relay is proprietary.  To communicate with non-Cisco equipment when using frame-relay encapsulation, the IETF method must be used.

The correct answer(s):  C D

What is required to support full-duplex Ethernet?
A.)  Multiple paths between multiple stations on a link
B.)  Automatic sensing operation by all connected stations
C.)  Loopback and collision detection disabled
D.)  Full-duplex NIC cards

Full duplex ethernet requires that the NIC supports full-duplex, and loopback and collision detection are disabled.

The correct answer(s):  A

Which layer is responsible for determining if sufficient resources for the intended communication exists?
A.)  Application
B.)  Network
C.)  Session
D.)  Presentation
E.)  Transport

The Application layer is responsible for determining if sufficient resources for the intended communication exists.

The correct answer(s):  B D

What are the 2 functions of the Data Link Mac layer?
A.)  Handles access to shared media
B.)  Manages protocol access to the physical network medium
C.)  Provides SAPs for higher level protocols
D.)  Allows multiple devices to uniquely identify one another on the data link layer

Media Access Control (MAC) -The MAC sublayer manages protocol access to the physical network medium. The IEEE MAC specification defines MAC addresses, which allow multiple devices to uniquely identify one another at the data link layer.

The correct answer(s):  A B C D

Describe End to End network services: (Choose all that apply)
A.)  Best Route selection
B.)  Accomplished Segment by Segment, each segment is autonomous
C.)  Flow Control & Data Integrity
D.)  Best efforts packet delivery

All of the above End to End network services.

The correct answer(s):  A B E

Which of the following provide correct information about a protocol at the transport layer of the OSI model?
A.)  UDP - Provides Connectionless datagrams service
B.)  TCP - Provides Connection Oriented Services
C.)  SMTP - Provides Mail Exchange
D.)  IP - Route determination
E.)  TCP - Provides Flow Control and Error Checking
F.)  FTP - Transfers of Files

Only TCP and UDP work at the Transport layer of the above choices.  IP is a Network layer protocol.  SMTP and FTP are application layer protocols.

The correct answer(s):  B

Which protocol works at the Internet layer and is responsible for making routing decisions?
A.)  UDP
B.)  IP
C.)  TCP
D.)  ARP

Internet Protocol - IP provides routing and a single interface to the upper layers. No upper layer protocol and now lower layer protocol have any functions relating to routing.  IP receives segments from the transport layer and fragments them into packets including the hosts IP address.

The correct answer(s):  D

Which layer is responsible for providing mechanisms for multiplexing upper-layer application, session establishment, and tear down of virtual circuits?
A.)  Session
B.)  Network
C.)  Physical
D.)  Transport
E.)  Application
F.)  Presentation

The Transport layer does the following: Responsible for end-to-end integrity of data transmission.  Handles multiplexing upper-layer application, session establishment and tear down of virtual circuits. Hides details of network dependent info from the higher layers by providing transparent data transfer. The 'windows' works at this level to control how much information is transferred before an acknowledgement is required.

The correct answer(s):  A B C D E F

Which of the following are logged when IP access list logging is enabled?
A.)  source address
B.)  protocol
C.)  source port
D.)  destination address
E.)  access list number
F.)  destination port

All of the above are logged when IP access list logging is enabled.

The correct answer(s):  B

What's the default CDP holdtime in seconds for Cisco routers?
A.)  30 seconds
B.)  180 seconds
C.)  90 seconds
D.)  60 seconds

Cisco Discovery Protocol is a proprietary protocol to allow you to access configuration information on other routers and switches with a single command.  It uses SNAP at the Data-Link Layer.  By default CDP sends out a broadcast every 60 seconds and it holds this information for 180 seconds.  CDP is enabled by default.

The correct answer(s):  B E

Which two of the following protocols are used at the Transport layer?
A.)  ARP
B.)  UDP
C.)  ICMP
D.)  RARP
E.)  TCP
F.)  BootP

TCP and UDP operate at the Transport layer.

The correct answer(s):  A

LAN stands for which of the following?
A.)  Local Area Network
B.)  Local Arena Network
C.)  Local Area News
D.)  Logical Area Network

LAN stands for Local Area Network

The correct answer(s):  A B E

Choose three reasons why the networking industry uses a layered model:
A.)  It facilitates systematic troubleshooting
B.)  It allows changes in one layer to occur without changing other layers
C.)  It allows changes to occur in all layers when changing one protocol
D.)  It clarifies how to do it rather than what general function to be done
E.)  It clarifies what general function is to be done rather than how to do it

Why do we have a Layered Model?
1) It reduces complexity
2) Allows for a standardized interface
3) Facilitates modular engineering
4) Ensures interoperable technology 
5) Accelerates evolution
6) Simplifies teaching and learning

The correct answer(s):  A

Which layer is responsible for identifying and establishing the availability of the intended communication partner?
A.)  Application
B.)  Presentation
C.)  Transport
D.)  Session
E.)  Network

The Application layer performs the following: Synchronizing sending and receiving applications. Program-to program communication. Identify and establish the availability of the intended communication partner, and determine if sufficient resources exist for the communication.  Popular application protocols include WWW, SMTP, EDI, FTP, Telnet, and SNMP

The correct answer(s):  B

A ISDN PRI circuit can be described as which of the following?
A.)  24 B channels and 1-64Kbps D channel
B.)  23 B channels and 1-64Kbps D channel
C.)  2-D channels and 1-C channel
D.)  2-64Kbps B channels and 1-16Kbps D channel

There are two types of ISDN Channels:
BRI (Basic Rate Interface) - is 2 64Kbps B channels for data and one 16Kbps D channel for link management.
PRI (Primary Rate Interface) - is 23Kbps B channels and 1 64Kbps D channel.

The correct answer(s):  A D F

What are 3 ways to provide login access to router?
A.)  Console
B.)  TFTP
C.)  Rlogin
D.)  Auxiliary Port
E.)  X Windows
F.)  Telnet

The three ways to provide login access to the router are via the Console port, auxiliary port, and virtual terminal (Telnet)

The correct answer(s):  A C

Which of the following statements are true?
A.)  Store and forward switching creates variable latency through the switch
B.)  Cut through switching creates variables latency through the switch
C.)  Cut through switching works at wire speed
D.)  Store and forward switching works at wire speed

The larger the packet, the greater the latency when using a switch with Store and Forward methods. This is due to the fact that Store and Forward switching copies the entire Frame into its buffer before forwarding the frame.  Cut Through switching only examines the destination address before forwarding the packet and does not copy the frame into its buffer.

The correct answer(s):  A C

Which of the following can reply to a Novell Get Nearest Server (GNS) request?
A.)  Local Novell server
B.)  Remote Novell Printer
C.)  Cisco router
D.)  Novell client

Cisco routers can act like Novell servers to an extent.  They can answer Get Nearest Server request by clients.  Of course, both Local and Remote Novell servers can reply to the GNS request.  As with Novell servers, Cisco routers can be configured to either reply, or not reply to GNS request by clients.  Since each Novell server and Cisco router builds a dynamic table of resources, they can reply to a clients request for the available resources closest to them.

The correct answer(s):  A C D

Identify the 3 kinds of routes IGRP advertises?
A.)  Interior
B.)  Dynamic
C.)  System
D.)  Exterior

IGRP is a distance vector routing protocol designed by Cisco.  The maximum hop count is 255, and it uses a combination of variables to determine a composite metric.  IGRP has an administrative distance of 100.  There are three types of routes IGRP advertises: 1) Interior, 2) Exterior, and 3) System.

The correct answer(s):  C

What is the routing metric used by RIP?
A.)  Route poisoning
B.)  Split horizon
C.)  Hop Count
D.)  TTL

Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is a distance vector routing protocol that used hop count as its metric.  The maximum hop count is 15, 16 hops is considered unreachable.  RIP updates are broadcast every 30 seconds by default.  RIP has an administrative distance of 120.

The correct answer(s):  D

What is the default encapsulation and frame type on an Ethernet interface when enabling Novell?
A.)  SNAP
B.)  Ethernet_II
C.)  802.2
D.)  802.3
E.)  SAP
F.)  Token_SNAP

By default, when an encapsulation type is not specified, the 802.3 frame type is used.

The correct answer(s):  C D

What is true when creating static route?
A.)  The mask parameter is optional
B.)  The administrative distance is required
C.)  The gateway parameter is required
D.)  The administrative distance is optional

When creating a static route, the gateway parameter is required, but the administrative distance is optional.  The correct syntax is: Router(config)# ip route <network> <mask> <address | interface> <admin distance>

The correct answer(s):  C

Of the following switching types, which one has the highest latency?
A.)  Cut-through
B.)  None
C.)  Store-and-forward
D.)  Fragment Free

Store-and-Forward switching copies the entire frame into its buffer and computes the CRC.  If a CRC error is detected, the frame is discarded, or if the frame is a runt (less than 64 bytes including the CRC) or a giant (more than 1518 bytes including the CRC).  The LAN switch then looks up the destination address in its switching table and determines the outgoing interface.  The frame is then forwarded to the outgoing interface.  Cisco Catalyst 5000 switches uses the Store-and-Forward method.  The problem with Store-and-Forward switching is latency is increased.  Latency also varies with the size of the frame.  The larger the frame, the more latency associated.  This of course is due to the fact that the entire frame is copied into its buffer before being forwarded.

The correct answer(s):  D

What does the IPX maximum path command do?
A.)  Allows you to disable the TTL on an IPX packet
B.)  This parameter is only used in NLSP routing
C.)  Sets the maximum metric that can appear in the routing table
D.)  Configures round robin load sharing over multiple equal metric paths (parallel paths)

The ipx maximum path command allows you to configure parallel paths for load sharing.

The correct answer(s):  D

What does -1 mean in an extended IPX access-list?
A.)  Any IP address
B.)  Deny all
C.)  Deny host
D.)  Any host or any network

For IPX access lists, the -1 is a wildcard that signifies Any Host or Any Network.

The correct answer(s):  D

What paramater is used with statically assigned routers to tell packets which interface to use to reach a distant network?
A.)  Mask
B.)  Subnet
C.)  Default gateway
D.)  Interface

The interface parameter tell a packet which interface to use to reach other networks.

The correct answer(s):  A E

Which of the following protocols are used to get an IP address from a known MAC address?
A.)  BootP
B.)  TCP
C.)  IP
D.)  ARP
E.)  RARP
F.)  ICMP

Reverse Address Resolution Protocol - RARP is ARP's counterpart, but it resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses typically on diskless workstations.  BootP allows a host to resolves it's own MAC address to an IP address.

The correct answer(s):  D

What does the Spanning Tree Algorithm (STA) do?
A.)  Restore lost frames
B.)  Builds routing tables for routing through an internetwork
C.)  Forward packets through a switch
D.)  STA is implemented by STP to prevent loops
IEEE 8021.d Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) was developed to prevent routing loops in a network.  If a router, switch, or hub has more then one path to the same destination, a routing problem could occur.  To prevent this, the Spanning Tree Protocol is executed between the devices to detect and logically block redundant paths from the network.  The main function of the Spanning Tree Protocol is to allow redundant network paths without suffering the effects of loops in the network. 
The Spanning Tree Algorithm (STA) implemented by STP prevents loops by calculating a stable Spanning Tree network topology.  When creating fault tolerant internetworks, a loop-free path must exist between all Ethernet nodes in the network. Spanning Tree frames called Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) are sent and received by all switches in the network at regular intervals.

The correct answer(s):  B

IP extended access lists use which of the following as a basis for permitting or denying packets?
A.)  destination address
B.)  all of the above
C.)  protocol
D.)  source address
E.)  port

All of the above are basis for permitting or denying IP packets for use with an Extended IP access list.

The correct answer(s):  C

What is the extended IPX access list range?
A.)  901-1000
B.)  100-199
C.)  900-999
D.)  1000-1000

Cisco has setup ranges of numbers to signify access lists.  900-999 is the range for the Extended IPX access lists.

The correct answer(s):  A

CPE is an acronym for which of the following?
A.)  Customer Premise Equipment
B.)  Central Processing Engineering
C.)  Customer Process Equipment
D.)  Central Processing Equipment

Customer Premise Equipment (CPE) are devices physically located at the subscriber's premises.  Includes both owned and leased equipment.

The correct answer(s):  A

How often does IP RIP send out routing table updates by default?
A.)  They send complete updates every 30 seconds
B.)  They send partial updates every 30 seconds
C.)  They send complete updates every 60 seconds
D.)  They send partial updates every 60 seconds

Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is a distance vector routing protocol that used hop count as it's metric.  The maximum hop count is 15, 16 hops is considered unreachable.  RIP updates are broadcast every 30 seconds by default.  RIP has an administrative distance of 120.

The correct answer(s):  C

Which ISDN protocol prefix specifies switching and signalling?
A.)  I
B.)  E
C.)  Q
D.)  S

These protocols deal with ISDN issues: 
E - Specifies ISDN on the existing telephone network. 
I - Specifies concepts, terminology, and services. 
Q - Specifies switching and signaling.

The correct answer(s):  A

CSMA/CD stand for which of the following?
A.)  Carrier Sense, Multiple Access with Collision Detection
B.)  Collision Sense, Multiple Access with Collision Detection
C.)  Collision Sense, Multiple Access with Carrier Detection
D.)  Carrier Sense, MAC address with Collision Detection

The IEEE standard for Carrier Sense Multiple Acces / Collision Detection is 802.3.  Also know as Ethernet.

The correct answer(s):  A B

Which of the following are Distant Vector protocols?
A.)  IGRP
B.)  RIP
C.)  OSFP
D.)  EIGRP

RIP and IGRP are Distance Vectoring protocols that send their entire routing tables to their neighbors.
In some Cisco literature, EIGRP is listed as an 'advanced disance vector' routing protocol.  However, the official curriculum courseware considers EIGRP a 'hybrid' protocol.

The correct answer(s):  B

UDP works at which layer of the DOD model?
A.)  Internet
B.)  Host-to-Host
C.)  Transport
D.)  Data Link

The TCP/IP Transport Layer (OSI) and Host to Host (DOD) protocols use TCP and UDP.

The correct answer(s):  A

Of the following switching types, which one has the lowest latency?
A.)  Cut-through
B.)  Fragment Free
C.)  None
D.)  Store-and-forward

Cut-Through switching copies only the destination address which is the first 6 bytes after the frame preamble into its buffer.  The LAN switch then looks up the destination address in its switching table and determines the outgoing interface.  The frame is then sent to the interface.  A cut-through switch provides reduced latency because it begins to forward the frame as soon as it read the destination address and determines the outgoing interface.

The correct answer(s):  C

What is an administrative distance of 0 mean?
A.)  0 means unbelievable
B.)  0 is for EIGRP
C.)  0 is the default distance for directly connected networks
D.)  0 means unreachable

Directly connected network have the lowest administrative distance of 0.  They are considered the most reliable.
The correct answer(s):  C

Which of the following describe full-duplex transmission?
A.)  Uses a single wire
B.)  Data transmission in only both directions, but only one way at a time
C.)  Uses a point-to-point connection from the transmitter of the transmitting station to the receiver of the receiving station
D.)  Data transmission in only one direction

Full Duplex - Capability for simultaneous data transmission between a sending station and a receiving station.  It requires a workstation be attached to a switch, the NIC must support it, and collision detection and loopback must be disabled.

The correct answer(s):  A

Which of the following is a connectionless protocol at the Transport layer?
A.)  UDP
B.)  ARP
C.)  ICMP
D.)  RARP
E.)  IP
F.)  FTP

User Datagram Protocol - UDP is a connectionless oriented transport protocol for use when the upper layers provide error-recovery and reliability.  UDP does not sequence data or re-assemble it into any order after transmission.  This protocol uses Port 17.

The correct answer(s):  A

What is the routing metric used by IGRP?
A.)  MTU, delay, bandwidth, reliability, and loading
B.)  Count to infinity
C.)  TTL
D.)  Hop count

IGRP is a distance vector routing protocol designed by Cisco.  The maximum hop count is 255, and it uses a combination of variables to determine a composite metric.  IGRP has an administrative distance of 100.

The correct answer(s):  B

What does 'P' mean when running a Trace?
A.)  Good route
B.)  Protocol unreachable
C.)  Source Quench
D.)  Destination unreachable

When a P is returned when a Trace is run, it means the Protocol is unreachable.

The correct answer(s):  B

What is the Network Layer of the OSI responsible for?
A.)  Bridging
B.)  Routing packets through an internetwork
C.)  Regenerating the digital signal
D.)  Gateway services

The Network Layer routes data from one node to another, sends data from the source network to the destination network. The router will use packet switching to move a packet from one interface or port, to another through the network cloud.

The correct answer(s):  C

Which layer is responsible for routing through an internetwork?
A.)  Physical
B.)  Session
C.)  Network
D.)  Transport
E.)  Application
F.)  Data Link

The Network layer is responsible for routing.  This is the primary job of routers, which operate at the Network layer.

The correct answer(s):  B D F

What three occurrences will reset the holddown timer after a triggered update?
A.)  Infinity is finally defined as some max number
B.)  HD Timer expires
C.)  Another update is received indicating a better metric
D.)  The router receives a processing task proportional to the number of links in the internetwork
E.)  The router detects fault LSP's propagating through the internetwork
F.)  Another update is received indicating net status changed

The HD Timer expires, another update is received indicating net status change, or if the router recieves a processing task proportional to the number of links in the internetwork, this reset the holddown timer.  These are all triggered updates.

The correct answer(s):  D

Which layer is responsible for putting 1s and 0s into a logical group?
A.)  Session
B.)  Application
C.)  Transport
D.)  Data Link
E.)  Physical
F.)  Network

Frames are broken down into 1s and 0s and placed onto the physical medium by the Data Link layer.

The correct answer(s):  D

How many LMI types are available on Cisco routers?
A.)  Four
B.)  Two
C.)  Five
D.)  Three

There are three types of LMI standards: 
ANSI - Annex D defined by ANSI standard T1.617 
ITU-T (Q.933A) - Annex A defined by Q933A 
Cisco (default) - LMI defined by the gang of four

The correct answer(s):  B

Which layer is responsible for framing?
A.)  Application
B.)  Data Link
C.)  Physical
D.)  Network
E.)  Transport

The Data link layer performs the following: Responsible for physically passing data from one node to another.  Translates messages from the upper layers into data frames and adds customized headers containing the Hardware destination and source address.
The correct answer(s):  C
What ISDN protocol specifies concepts, terminology, and services?
A.)  Q
B.)  S
C.)  I
D.)  E

These protocols deal with ISDN issues: 
E - Specifies ISDN on the existing telephone network. 
I - Specifies concepts, terminology, and services. 
Q - Specifies switching and signaling.

The correct answer(s):  B

What is the purpose of Split Horizons?
A.)  It prevents the regular update messages from reinstating a route that has gone down
B.)  Information received on an interface cannot be sent back out the same interface
C.)  Informs all neighbor routers that two routes exist
D.)  Tells the router the destination is unreachable

Split Horizon - If you learn a protocol’s route on an interface, do not send information about that route back out that interface.

The correct answer(s):  D

WAN stands for which of the following?
A.)  Wide Arena Network
B.)  World Area Network
C.)  Wide Area News
D.)  Wide Area Network

WAN stands for Wide Area Network

The correct answer(s):  A

Which of the following provide connection-oriented transport to upper layer protocols?
A.)  SPX
B.)  RIP
C.)  NLSP
D.)  NCP

SPX is similar to TCP in that is provides reliable delivery of packets and provides connection-oriented transport to the upper layer protocols.

The correct answer(s):  A C

Which two does 100BaseT use?
A.)  CSMA/CD
B.)  IEEE 802.5
C.)  802.3u
D.)  Switching with 53-byte cells

100BaseT - 100BaseT uses two-pair Category 5 UTP cable with an RJ45 connector and the same pin out as in 10BaseT.  100BaseT supports full duplex operation.  100BaseT is limited to 100 meters distance.

The correct answer(s):  A

Which layer is responsible for flow control, acknowledgement, and windowing?
A.)  Transport
B.)  Network
C.)  Application
D.)  Session
E.)  Physical
F.)  Data Link

The Transport layer performs the following: Responsible for end-to-end integrity of data transmission.  Handles multiplexing upper-layer application, session establishment and tear down of virtual circuits. Hides details of network dependent info from the higher layers by providing transparent data transfer. The 'windows' works at this level to control how much information is transferred before an acknowledgement is required.

The correct answer(s):  A

Which of the following is used to manage and monitor the network?
A.)  SNMP
B.)  HTTP
C.)  IP
D.)  FTP

The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is used to manage and monitor traps.

The correct answer(s):  A

What is true about Link-State protocols?
A.)  They maintain a more complex table than distant vector protocols
B.)  They maintain a less complex table than distant vector protocols
C.)  They use routing ports
D.)  The maintain backup copies of the IOS

Whereas the distance vector algorithm has non-specific information about distant networks and no knowledge of distant routers, a link-state routing algorithm maintains full knowledge of distant routers and how they interconnect.

The correct answer(s):  C

The maximum distance on a 10BaseT network from the hub to a workstation is which of the following?
A.)  500 meters
B.)  1000 meters
C.)  100 meters
D.)  1500 meters

The standard for 10BaseT networks is 100 meters, or approximately 330 feet.

The correct answer(s):  C

Which of the following use PVCs at layer 2?
A.)  X.25
B.)  HDLC
C.)  Frame relay
D.)  ISDN

Of the above choices, only Frame relay uses Permanent Virtual Circuits (PVCs) at layer 2.  PVC is the key word in this question.
The correct answer(s):  D
What is the routing algorithm used by RIP and IGRP?
A.)  OSPF
B.)  Link-state
C.)  Dynamic
D.)  Distance Vector

Distance vector-based routing algorithms (also known as Bellman-Ford algorithms) pass periodic copies of a routing table from router to router. Regular updates between routers communicate topology changes.  Each router receives a routing table from it's direct neighbor and increments all learned routes by one. By this method, each router learns the internetwork topology via second hand information.

The correct answer(s):  E

Which layer is responsible for negotiating data transfer syntax?
A.)  Network
B.)  Session
C.)  Application
D.)  Transport
E.)  Presentation

The Presentation layer performs the following: Manages data representation conversions, or data transfer syntax. For example, the Presentation layer would be responsible for converting from EDCDIC to ASCII. Data compression, decompression, encryption, and decryption are presentation layer.  Presentation layer standards include MPEG, MIDI, PICT, TIFF, JPEG, ASCII, and EBCDIC

The correct answer(s):  C

What are hold-downs used for?
A.)  To prevent regular update messages from reinstating a route that has come back up
B.)  Information received on an interface cannot be sent back out the same interface
C.)  To prevent regular update messages from reinstating a route that has gone down
D.)  To hold the routing table from being sent to another router

Hold-Down Timers - Routers ignore network update information for some period.

The correct answer(s):  A

Which of the following protocols are used for logical network addressing?
A.)  IP
B.)  TCP
C.)  ARP
D.)  ICMP
E.)  RARP
F.)  BootP

Internet Protocol - IP provides routing and a single interface to the upper layers. No upper layer protocol and now lower layer protocol have any functions relating to routing.  IP receives segments from the transport layer and fragments them into packets including the hosts IP address.  IP addressing is logical, not physical.

The correct answer(s):  A B C D E F

Which can be logged by IPX extended access lists?
A.)  source address
B.)  protocol
C.)  source socket
D.)  access list number
E.)  destination socket
F.)  destination address

All of the above can be logged by IPX extended access lists.
The correct answer(s):  D

Put the following steps of encapsulation into the correct order:
            1) The data is broken into segments to be organized
            2) Frames are converted to 1s and 0s to be put on the wire
            3) Packets are converted into frames
            4) Information that users enter is converted into data
            5) The segments are changed to packets to be routed
A.)  4, 1, 3, 2, 5
B.)  4, 5, 1, 3, 2
C.)  2, 3, 1, 4, 5
D.)  4, 1, 5, 3, 2

Follow the steps through the Layers of the OSI model to get the answer.  Watch the key words in each line to help you determine the steps.

The correct answer(s):  A

Which port numbers are used by TCP and UDP to set up sessions with other hosts?
A.)  1024 and above
B.)  6 and 17 respectively
C.)  1-25
D.)  6-17

TCP and UDP use random port number above 1023 for establishing communications.

The correct answer(s):  D

Repeaters work at which layer of the OSI model?
A.)  Network
B.)  Session
C.)  Transport
D.)  Physical

Repeaters work at the Physical layer of the OSI model by regenerating the signal to extend the distance it can travel.

The correct answer(s):  B C D E

What protocols can you use while testing Trace?
A.)  DECnet
B.)  CLNS
C.)  IP
D.)  Old Vines
E.)  Vines
F.)  Chaos

Type Trace ? At the router command prompt to see a list of available supported protocols for tracing routes to IP addresses or Name addresses.

The correct answer(s):  C

What utility can you use to see the path a packet takes through an internetwork?
A.)  Route
B.)  SNMP
C.)  Trace
D.)  Ping

Trace - Uses Time-To-Live (TTL) values to generate messages from each router used along the path.  This is very powerful in its ability to locate failures in the path from the source to the destination.

The correct answer(s):  C

What is true about frame-relay DLCI?
A.)  DLCI represents a single physical circuit
B.)  DLCI is optional in all frame-relay networks
C.)  DLCI identifies a logical connection between DTE devices
D.)  DLCI is used to tag the beginning of a frame with VLAN information

Data Link Connection Identifier (DLCI).  A frame-relay service provider typically assigns DLCI values that are used by frame-relay to distinguish between different virtual circuits on the network.   For the IP devices at each end of a virtual circuit to communicate, their IP addresses are mapped to DLCIs.  Every DLCI value can have a global or local meaning.

The correct answer(s):  D

Which frame has a Type field to identify the upper-layer protocol?
A.)  802.3
B.)  802.2
C.)  802.5
D.)  Ethernet_II

Ethernet_II has a Type field to identify the upper-layer protocol.  This is best seen by capturing packets with a sniffer and examining the packet.

The correct answer(s):  C

Which protocol will let neighbor routers know if your internetwork experienced congestion on a serial port?
A.)  BootP
B.)  IP
C.)  ICMP
D.)  ARP
E.)  FTP
F.)  RARP

Internet Control Message Protocol - ICMP is a management protocol and messaging service provider for IP.  Its messages are carried as IP datagrams.

ICMP is used in the following events:

Destination Unreachable - If a router cannot send an IP packet any further, it uses an ICMP echo to send a message back to the sender notifying it that the remote node is unreachable.

Buffer Full - If a routers memory buffer is full ICMP will send out a message to the originator.

Hops - Each IP datagram is assigned a path.  This consists of hops.  If it goes through the maximum number of hops, the packet is discarded and the discarding router sends an ICMP echo to the host. 

Ping - Ping use ICMP echo message to check connectivity.

The correct answer(s):  C

What do you use the Aux port for?
A.)  Console
B.)  Terminal editing
C.)  Modem
D.)  Backup logging

The auxiliary port is used to connect a modem to for dial backups.

The correct answer(s):  B

The CSMA/CD Ethernet IEEE committee is defines as which of the following?
A.)  802.2
B.)  802.3
C.)  802.4
D.)  802.5

The IEEE standard for Carrier Sense Multiple Acces / Collision Detection is 802.3.  Also know as Ethernet.
The correct answer(s):  B

How many Frame-relay encapsulation types are available with Cisco routers?
A.)  Four
B.)  Two
C.)  Five
D.)  Three

The two types of Frame relay encapsulation are Cisco and IETF.

The correct answer(s):  B

What is the maximum hop count for Link-State protocols?
A.)  15
B.)  there is no hop count limit
C.)  256
D.)  16

Link-state-based routing algorithms – also known as shortest path first (SPF) algorithms, maintain a complex database of topology information. Whereas the distance vector algorithm has non-specific information about distant networks and no knowledge of distant routers, a link-state routing algorithm maintains full knowledge of distant routers and how they interconnect.

The correct answer(s):  A B D E F

What information can you get from CDP info: (choose all that apply)
A.)  Hardware platform
B.)  One address per protocol
C.)  Software platform
D.)  Hostname
E.)  The same info as show version
F.)  Incoming/outgoing port

All of the above except the software platform can be seen with the CDP information.

The correct answer(s):  B

How does the cut-through switching technique work?
A.)  By using broadcast address as source addresses
B.)  The switch waits only for the header to be received before it checks the destination address and starts forwarding the packets
C.)  The LAN switch copies the entire frame into its onboard buffers and then looks up the destination address in its forwarding, or switching, table and determines the outgoing interface
D.)  By using a Class I repeater in a collision domain

Cut-Through switching copies only the destination address which is the first 6 bytes after the frame preamble into its buffer.  The LAN switch then looks up the destination address in its switching table and determines the outgoing interface.  The frame is then sent to the interface.  A cut-through switch provides reduced latency because it begins to forward the frame as soon as it read the destination address and determines the outgoing interface.

The correct answer(s):  D

What is the protocol number for TCP?
A.)  80
B.)  21
C.)  11
D.)  6

Transmission Control Protocol - TCP is a connection oriented transport layer protocol with built in reliability.  It takes a large block of data and breaks it down into segments.  It numbers and sequences each segment so the destination's TCP protocol can re-assemble it back into the original order.  TCP uses acknowledgements via sliding windows.  It has a large overhead due to built in error checking.  The protocol use protocol # 6.

The correct answer(s):  A B C

Which of the following are Presentation Layer standards?
A.)  JPEG and PICT
B.)  MPEG and MIDI
C.)  ASCII and EBCDIC
D.)  NFS and SQL

For example, the Presentation layer would be responsible for converting from EDCDIC to ASCII. Data compression, decompression, encryption, and decryption are presentation layer.  Presentation layer standards include MPEG, MIDI, PICT, TIFF, JPEG, ASCII, and EBCDIC.

The correct answer(s):  C

What is the administrative distance for RIP?
A.)  100
B.)  90
C.)  120
D.)  110

Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is a distance vector routing protocol that uses hop count as its metric.  The maximum hop count is 15, 16 hops is considered unreachable.  RIP updates are broadcast every 30 seconds by default.  RIP has an administrative distance of 120.

The correct answer(s):  D

IP standard access lists use which of the following as a basis for permitting or denying packets?
A.)  destination address
B.)  port
C.)  protocol
D.)  source address

For Standard access lists, only the source address is used as a basis for permitting or denying packets.

The correct answer(s):  D

If a frame is received at a switch and only the destination hardware address is read before the frame is forwarded, what type of switching method is this?
A.)  Store-and-drop
B.)  Latency
C.)  Store-and-forward
D.)  Cut-through

Cut-Through switching copies only the destination address which is the first 6 bytes after the frame preamble into its buffer.  The LAN switch then looks up the destination address in its switching table and determines the outgoing interface.  The frame is then sent to the interface.  A cut-through switch provides reduced latency because it begins to forward the frame as soon as it read the destination address and determines the outgoing interface.

The correct answer(s):  B

What is the purpose and default value of the CDP timer command?
A.)  90 seconds; interval before an entry expires
B.)  60 seconds; interval between updates
C.)  60 seconds; interval before an entry expires
D.)  90 seconds; interval between updates

The CDP timer controls when the update of CDP information should be sent to the neighbor router.

The correct answer(s):  A B C D

Choose the following that are benefits to segmenting with router:
A.)  Flow Control
B.)  Manageability
C.)  Multiple Active Paths
D.)  Explicit packet lifetime control

All of the above are benefits of segmenting with a router.

The correct answer(s):  D

When discussing static routes, what is the gateway parameter used for?
A.)  Determining the dynamic route
B.)  Defining the subnet
C.)  Defining the Administrative Distance
D.)  Determining the next hop

The gateway parameter determines the path to the next router.

The correct answer(s):  A

Which layer hides details of network dependent information from the higher layers by providing transparent data transfer?
A.)  Transport
B.)  Physical
C.)  Data Link
D.)  Session
E.)  Application
F.)  Network

The Transport layer does the following: Responsible for end-to-end integrity of data transmission.  Handles multiplexing upper-layer application, session establishment and tear down of virtual circuits. Hides details of network dependent info from the higher layers by providing transparent data transfer. The 'windows' works at this level to control how much information is transferred before an acknowledgement is required.

The correct answer(s):  B C D

What information is provided by the local managment interface (LMI)?
A.)  LMI encapsulation type
B.)  The current DLCI values
C.)  The status of virtual circuits
D.)  The global or local significance of the DLCI values

LMI is a standard related to Frame Relay.  It provides information related to PVCs.

The correct answer(s):  E

Which layer defines the physical topology?
A.)  Application
B.)  Transport
C.)  Network
D.)  Data Link
E.)  Physical
F.)  Session

The Physical layer deals with the actual physical medium and the method of transporting 1s and 0s.

The correct answer(s):  C

What key do you use to view the last command?
A.)  Left Arrow
B.)  Space Bar
C.)  Up Arrow
D.)  Right Arrow

CTRL+P as well as the Up Arrow keyboard commands will show the last command.

The correct answer(s):  A E

Which of the follow do not belong to the customer?
A.)  CO
B.)  DCE
C.)  Router
D.)  CPE
E.)  Demarc
F.)  DTE

Central Office (CO) - A switching facility that provides the nearest point of presence for a provider's WAN service. 

Demarcation (Demarc) - The point at which the CPE ends and the local loop portion of the service begins.  Usually the telecommunications closet at the subscriber's location. 

CPE, DTE, DCE, and the router are all typically owned by the customer.  DTE devices are usually routers, DCE devices are CSUs/DSUs, or WAN interfaces that have a built in CSU/DSU in the router. CPE stands for Customer Premise Equipment.

The correct answer(s):  D

What is the IEEE specification for Spanning Tree Protocol?
A.)  802.9
B.)  803.ud
C.)  803
D.)  802.1d

IEEE 8021.d Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) was developed to prevent routing loops in a network.  If a router, switch, or hub has more then one path to the same destination, a routing problem could occur.  To prevent this, the Spanning Tree Protocol is executed between the devices to detect and logically block redundant paths from the network.  The main function of the Spanning Tree Protocol is to allow redundant network paths without suffering the effects of loops in the network. 

The Spanning Tree Algorithm (STA) implemented by STP prevents loops by calculating a stable Spanning Tree network topology.  When creating fault tolerant internetworks, a loop-free path must exist between all Ethernet nodes in the network. Spanning Tree frames called Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) are sent and received by all switches in the network at regular intervals.
The correct answer(s):  A

CO is an acronym for which of the following?
A.)  Central Office
B.)  Capital Office
C.)  Central Operator
D.)  Company Office

Central Office (CO) - A switching facility that provides the nearest point of presence for a provider's WAN service.

The correct answer(s):  D

What is convergence time?
A.)  The update time
B.)  The time it takes to reload a router
C.)  The time it takes for a packet to reach its destination
D.)  The time is takes for all routers update their tables after a change takes place

Convergence is slower for Distant Vector routing and is faster for Link State routing.
The correct answer(s):  C
Which of the following are Session Layer standards?
A.)  ASCII and EBCDIC
B.)  MPEG and MIDI
C.)  NFS and SQL
D.)  JPEG and PICT

Session layer protocols include NFS, SQL, RPC, Appletalk Session Protocol (ASP), XWindows, and NetBEUI.

The correct answer(s):  B

What is the IP extended access list range?
A.)  1000-1099
B.)  100-199
C.)  1-99
D.)  101-200

100-199 is the range for Extended IP access lists.

The correct answer(s):  D

Define Poison Reverse?
A.)  To prevent regular update messages from reinstating a route that has gone down
B.)  Packets sent out that are not destined for a network go to the default network
C.)  Information received on an interface cannot be sent back out the same interface
D.)  When a network goes down, the router enters in its table the number 16 to signify destination unreachable

By entering a 16 as the hop count, the other routers know that the destination is unreacheable.

The correct answer(s):  A

What is the default interval for SAP updates?
A.)  60 seconds
B.)  15 seconds
C.)  30 seconds
D.)  120 seconds

By default, the SAP (Service Access Protocol) sends out updates every 60 seconds.  This value can be changed to alter the update interval.  To decrease WAN traffic, the update interval could be increased to every 5 minutes.

The correct answer(s):  B

What does a router do with a packet that it does not have a destination network for?
A.)  Sends it to the Serial port
B.)  Drops the packet
C.)  Sends it back out the same interface it received it in
D.)  Forwards the packet to the next hop

When a router does not have a destination for a packet, it drops the packet into the bit bucket.

The correct answer(s):  C

What type of frame does CDP use to gather information about It's neighbors?
A.)  TCP/IP
B.)  Novell-ether
C.)  Subnetwork Access Protocol (SNAP)
D.)  Ethernet_II

Cisco Discovery Protocol is a proprietary protocol to allow you to access configuration information on other routers and switches with a single command.  It uses SNAP at the Data-Link Layer.  By default CDP sends out a broadcast every 60 seconds and it holds this information for 180 seconds.  CDP is enabled by default.

The correct answer(s):  C

Which protocol is used for booting diskless workstaions?
A.)  IP
B.)  ARP
C.)  RARP
D.)  TCP
E.)  SNMP

Reverse Address Resolution Protocol - RARP is ARP's counterpart, but it resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses typically on diskless workstations.

The correct answer(s):  D

Which layer is responsible for synchronizing sending and receiving applications?
A.)  Presentation
B.)  Session
C.)  Transport
D.)  Application
E.)  Network

The Application layer performs the following: Synchronizing sending and receiving applications. Program-to program communication. Identify and establish the availability of the intended communication partner, and determine if sufficient resources exist for the communication.  Popular application protocols include WWW, SMTP, EDI, FTP, Telnet, and SNMP

The correct answer(s):  E

Which protocol gets a hardware address from a known IP address?
A.)  RARP
B.)  TCP
C.)  IP
D.)  BootP
E.)  ARP
F.)  ICMP

Address Resolution Protocol - ARP is responsible for resolving MAC addresses to IP address.  It stores these in It's arp cache for later use.  It does this to inform a lower layer of the destination's MAC address.

The correct answer(s):  D

Which layer defines bit synchronization?
A.)  Application
B.)  Network
C.)  Transport
D.)  Physical
E.)  Session
F.)  Session

The Physical layers deals with synchronizing the 1s and 0s on the wire.

The correct answer(s):  C

Which is true regarding half duplex Ethernet operation?
A.)  Half Duplex ethernet technology provides a transmit circuit connection wired directly to the receiver circuit at the other end
B.)  Half duplex transmission between stations is achieved by using point to multipoint Ethernet and Fast Ethernet
C.)  With Half Duplex transmission logically circuits feed into a single cable creating a situation similar to a one way bridge
D.)  Half Duplex transmission between stations is achieved using Point to Point Ethernet & Fast Ethernet

Half-Duplex - Capability for data transmission in only one direction at a time between sending station and a receiving station.

The correct answer(s):  B

When would you use ISDN?
A.)  To connect LANs using POTS
B.)  To support applications requiring voice, data, and video
C.)  When you need a consistent and very high rate of data speed
D.)  To connect to IBM mainframes

IDSN supports high speed voice, data and video and is a good choice for many small businesses.

The correct answer(s):  D

Which protocol will send a message to routers if a network outage or congestion occurs?
A.)  ARP
B.)  TCP
C.)  IP
D.)  ICMP

Internet Control Message Protocol - ICMP is a management protocol and messaging service provider for IP.  Its messages are carried as IP datagrams.

ICMP is used in the following events:

Destination Unreachable - If a router cannot send an IP packet any further, it uses an ICMP echo to send a message back to the sender notifying it that the remote node is unreachable.

Buffer Full - If a routers memory buffer is full ICMP will send out a message to the originator.

Hops - Each IP datagram is assigned a path.  This consists of hops.  If it goes through the maximum number of hops, the packet is discarded and the discarding router sends an ICMP echo to the host. 

Ping - Ping use ICMP echo message to check connectivity.

The correct answer(s):  B D

What are the 2 functions of the Data Link Mac layer?
A.)  Handles access to shared media
B.)  Manages protocol access to the physical network medium
C.)  Provides SAPs for higher level protocols
D.)  Allows multiple devices to uniquely identify one another on the data link layer

These are the two primary functions of the MAC layer.

The correct answer(s):  C

Which layer is responsible for coordinating communication between systems?
A.)  Application
B.)  Network
C.)  Session
D.)  Transport
E.)  Physical
F.)  Data Link

The Session layer performs the following: Responsible for establishing and maintaining communications channels. In practice, this layer is often combined with the Transport Layer.  Dialog control between devices or nodes. Organizes the communication through simplex, half and full duplex modes. Deals with connection establishment, data transfer, and connection release.

The correct answer(s):  B

What is the default CDP broadcast update rate for Cisco routers?
A.)  120 seconds
B.)  60 seconds
C.)  30 seconds
D.)  90 seconds

Cisco Discovery Protocol is a proprietary protocol to allow you to access configuration information on other routers and switches with a single command.  It uses SNAP at the Data-Link Layer.  By default CDP sends out a broadcast every 60 seconds and it holds this information for 180 seconds.  CDP is enabled by default.

The correct answer(s):  A D

You need to come up with a TCP/IP addressing scheme for your company. How many network IDs must you allow for when you define the subnet mask for the network?
A.)  One for each WAN link
B.)  One for each router interface
C.)  One for each NIC installed in each client
D.)  One for each subnet with hosts
E.)  One for each host ID

When determining Network Ids, you need to take into account each Subnet and Each WAN link  you will have.  Add these numbers up and you will find the answer to which Network ID you can use.

The correct answer(s):  B

What is the protocolt number for UDP?
A.)  6
B.)  17
C.)  25
D.)  21

User Datagram Protocol - UDP is a connectionless oriented transport protocol for use when the upper layers provide error-recovery and reliability.  UDP does not sequence data or re-assemble it into any order after transmission.  This protocol uses Port 17.

The correct answer(s):  A

What is the default LMI type?
A.)  Cisco
B.)  ANSI
C.)  IETF
D.)  Q933a

Local Management Interface (LMI) was developed in 1990.  LMI messages provide information about the current DLCI values, the global or local significance of the DLCI value, and the status of virtual circuits.

There are three types of LMI standards: 
ANSI - Annex D defined by ANSI standard T1.617 
ITU-T (Q.933A) - Annex A defined by Q933A 
Cisco (default) - LMI defined by the gang of four

The correct answer(s):  A

You have two Cisco routers setup back-to-back in a lab using DTE/DCE cables. To which router would you add the clockrate command?
A.)  The serial port on the DCE router
B.)  The Ethernet port on the DTE router
C.)  The Ethernet port on the DCE router
D.)  The serial port on the DTE router

In order to connect routers back-to-back, a clock rate must be set on the router with the DCE cable.  This will provide the clocking usually performed by a DSU/CSU.  It is recommended that a bandwidth statement be added to the interface because some routing protocols, such as IGRP, use this to make routing decisions.

The correct answer(s):  B

How does a switch use store and forward?
A.)  By using a Class I repeater in a collision domain
B.)  The LAN switch copies the entire frame into its onboard buffers and then looks up the destination address in its forwarding, or switching, table and determines the outgoing interface
C.)  By using broadcast addresses as source addresses
D.)  The switch waits only for the header to be received before it checks the destination address and starts forwarding the packets

Store-and-Forward switching copies the entire frame into its buffer and computes the CRC.  If a CRC error is detected, the frame is discarded, or if the frame is a runt (less than 64 bytes including the CRC) or a giant (more than 1518 bytes including the CRC).  The LAN switch then looks up the destination address in its switching table and determines the outgoing interface.  The frame is then forwarded to the outgoing interface.  Cisco Catalyst 5000 switches uses the Store-and-Forward method.  The problem with Store-and-Forward switching is latency is increased.  Latency also varies with the size of the frame.  The larger the frame, the more latency associated.  This of course is due to the fact that the entire frame is copied into its buffer before being forwarded.

The correct answer(s):  A B C D

Which of the following are valid WAN terms?
A.)  DTE
B.)  DCE
C.)  Demarc
D.)  CPE

All of the above are valid WAN terms.

The correct answer(s):  B C

Which two describe frame tagging?
A.)  Examines particular info about each frame
B.)  A unique ID placed in the header of each frame as it traverses the switch fabric
C.)  A user- assigned ID defined to each frame
D.)  The building of filter tables

Frame identification (frame tagging) uniquely assigns a user-defined ID to each frame.  This technique was chosen by the IEEE standards group because of its scalability. 

In this approach, a unique user-defined identifier is placed in the header of each frame as it's forwarded throughout the switch fabric.  The identifier is understood and examined by each switch prior to any broadcasts or transmissions to switch ports of other switches, router, or end-station devices.  When the frame exits the switch fabric, the switch removes the identifier before the frame is transmitted to the target end-station. 

The following points summarize frame tagging:
Used by Catalyst 3000 and 5000 series switches
Specifically developed for multi-VLAN, inter-switch communication
Places a unique identifier in the header of each frame
Functions at layer 2
Requires little processing or administrative overhead
The correct answer(s):  B
A ISDN BRI circuit can be described as a which of the following?
A.)  3B channels
B.)  2-64Kbps B channels and 1-16Kbps D channel
C.)  none of the above
D.)  2-64Kbps B channels and 1-16Kbps C channel

There are two types of ISDN Channels :
BRI (Basic Rate Interface) - is 2 64Kbps B channels for data and one 16Kbps D channel for link management.
PRI (Primary Rate Interface) - is 23Kbps B channels and 1 64Kbps D channel.

The correct answer(s):  C

The two sublayers of the IEEE Data Link Layer are which of the following?
A.)  Link and Logical Control
B.)  Data Link and LLC
C.)  Logical Link Control and Media Access Control
D.)  Data Link and MAC

Logical Link Control Sublayer - Acts as a managing buffer between the upper layers and the lower layers.  Uses Source Service Access Points (SSAPs) and Destination Service Access Points (DSAPs) to help the lower layers talk to the Network Layer.

Media Access Control (MAC) -The MAC sublayer manages protocol access to the physical network medium. The IEEE MAC specification defines MAC addresses, which allow multiple devices to uniquely identify one another at the data link layer.

The correct answer(s):  C

The --  terminal no editing  -- command will perform what function?
A.)  Edit the contents of NVRAM
B.)  Allows access to the terminal port
C.)  Stops the advanced editing feature
D.)  Enable password functions

The command to disable advanced editing feature is: Router(config)# terminal no editing

The correct answer(s):  B D

Which two of the following are valid ways to have multiple encapsulation types on a single interface?
A.)  This is not possible
B.)  subinterfaces
C.)  additional physical interfaces
D.)  secondary addresses

Cisco routers do not allow multiple encapsulation types on a single interface.  Therefore, it is necessary to create either a Secondary Network, or a Subinterface and assign a new encapsulation type.

The correct answer(s):  C D E

Which 3 statements describe default encapsulation and LMI type configuration?
A.)  There are only four encapsulations and 3 LMI type options
B.)  The LMI type config term options
C.)  In release 11.3 the LMI type is autosensed
D.)  The default LMI is Cisco
E.)  IETF encap must be configured unless the connecting routers are both cisco

The above 3 statements best describe default encapsulation and LMI type configuration for Cisco routers.

The correct answer(s):  A B C D

Which can be true regarding VLANs?
A.)  They are created by location
B.)  They are created by function
C.)  They are created by department
D.)  They are created by group

A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a switched network that is logically segmented by communities of interest without regard to the physical location of the users.  Each port on the switch can belong to a VLAN.  Ports in a VLAN share broadcasts.  A VLAN looks like, and is treated like, it's own subnet.
The benefits of VLANs are as follows:
Simplify moves, adds, and changes
Reduce administrative costs
Have better control of broadcasts
Tighten network security
Microsegment with scalability
Distribute traffic load
Relocate server into secured locations

The correct answer(s):  B

What is true when using DDR?
A.)  HDLC is the preferred encapsulation
B.)  You must use static routing
C.)  You should use dynamic routing
D.)  You should use ISDN

When using Dial Demand Routing (DDR), static routes must be specified in order to route packets.

The correct answer(s):  B

If you are running Token Ring with Novell IPX routing, which encapsulation should you use?
A.)  SAP
B.)  SNAP
C.)  802.5
D.)  802.2

Token Ring with Novell IPX routing uses the SNAP protocol, not 802.5.

The correct answer(s):  A B D

What are the 3 ways routers learn paths to destination networks?
A.)  Dynamic
B.)  Static
C.)  Routing tables
D.)  Default

There are three methods in which routers can learn paths to destination networks, they are:
1) Static - The administrator manually enters the routes.
2) Dynamic - A routing protocol is used.
3) Default - A gateway of last resort is set.

The correct answer(s):  A

Bridges work at what layer of the OSI model?
A.)  Data Link
B.)  Network
C.)  Physical
D.)  Application

Bridges work at Layer 2 (Data Link) because they examine the MAC address of the packet which they base decisions upon.

The correct answer(s):  D

What is the default switching method for the Cisco 5000 series?
A.)  Cut-through
B.)  Store-and-splice
C.)  Latency
D.)  Store-and-forward

Store-and-Forward switching copies the entire frame into its buffer and computes the CRC.  If a CRC error is detected, the frame is discarded, or if the frame is a runt (less than 64 bytes including the CRC) or a giant (more than 1518 bytes including the CRC).  The LAN switch then looks up the destination address in its switching table and determines the outgoing interface.  The frame is then forwarded to the outgoing interface.  Cisco Catalyst 5000 switches uses the Store-and-Forward method.  The problem with Store-and-Forward switching is latency is increased.  Latency also varies with the size of the frame.  The larger the frame, the more latency associated.  This of course is due to the fact that the entire frame is copied into its buffer before being forwarded.

The correct answer(s):  A C D

The benefits to segmenting with Bridges are which of the following?
A.)  Scalability
B.)  Datagram filtering
C.)  Manageability
D.)  Reliability

Manageability, reliability and scalability are all benefits to segmenting with bridges.

The correct answer(s):  D

What is the administrative distance for IGRP?
A.)  90
B.)  120
C.)  110
D.)  100

IGRP is a distance vector routing protocol designed by Cisco.  The maximum hop count is 255, and it uses a combination of variables to determine a composite metric.  IGRP has an administrative distance of 100.

The correct answer(s):  E

On an ISDN BRI interface, the control channel is the 'D' channel.  What is the rate of this channel?
A.)  64 Kbps
B.)  1.544 Mbps
C.)  128 Kbps
D.)  2.048 Mbps
E.)  16 Kbps

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 11, page 413
16K for the D channel (control)
64K for the two B channels (data)

The correct answer(s):  F

MIDI and MPEG are examples of what layer of the OSI seven layer model?
A.)  Session
B.)  Network
C.)  Datalink
D.)  Transport
E.)  Application
F.)  Presentation

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 17-18
The OSI Presentation layer includes EBCIDIC, ASCII, PICT, GIF, MIDI, and MPEG.
Encryption can also occur at this layer.

The correct answer(s):  B

Which ISDN specification series deals with Concepts and Terminology?
A.)  World Series
B.)  I- Series
C.)  Q-Series
D.)  911-Series
E.)  J-Series
F.)  F-Series

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 11, page 413
The 2 most important ISDN specifications are Q & I:
Q - Call setup and teardown.
I - Concepts and terminology.

The correct answer(s):  E

Which of the following is an example of the Physical Layer?
A.)  SQL
B.)  IP
C.)  LLC
D.)  DDP
E.)  Ethernet

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 34
FDDI, Token Ring and Ethernet are all physical layer framing standards.

The correct answer(s):  B
In regards to the ISDN BRI standard, which channel is used for control?
A.)  B
B.)  D
C.)  E
D.)  I
E.)  Q

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 11, page 413
B is Bearer for Data (2 channels at 64kb each).
D is for Control (16kb).
The correct answer(s):  C

Which protocol resolves an IP address to a MAC address?
A.)  DHCP
B.)  RARP
C.)  ARP
D.)  NBP
E.)  DNS

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 3, page 93
The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) sends out a broadcast to determine the MAC address from the IP address.

The correct answer(s):  B

Which of the following is an example of the Network Layer?
A.)  TCP
B.)  IP
C.)  SQL
D.)  Token Ring
E.)  LLC

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 25-29
Most protocol suites have differnet OSI layer protocols within them.  At layer 3,
IP is for TCP/IP.  TCP is layer 4.
IPX is for IPX/SPX.  SPX is layer 4.
DDP is for Appletalk

The correct answer(s):  F

The Internet Control Message Protocol occurs at what layer of the seven layer model?
A.)  Physical
B.)  Transport
C.)  Session
D.)  Datalink
E.)  Presentation
F.)  Network

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 3, page 94-95
ICMP is used for error handling and testing at layer 3.  Ping and traceroute are examples of ICMP.

The correct answer(s):  B C E

Which of the following are examples of the Session Layer?
A.)  IP
B.)  Netbios Names
C.)  NFS
D.)  Token Ring
E.)  SQL
F.)  TCP

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 18-20
Session layer examples include Netbios Names, SQL, NFS, X Windows, and RPC.

The correct answer(s):  D

What is the regional telco office called, where the customers local loop terminates?
A.)  Demarc
B.)  DTE
C.)  DCE
D.)  CO
E.)  CPE

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 11, page 389
The Central Office (CO) is the Telephone Company (Telco) location nearest you.

The correct answer(s):  C

What is the default LMI type for Cisco Routers that are using Frame-Relay?
A.)  Gandalf5
B.)  Q933A
C.)  Cisco
D.)  IETF
E.)  ARPA
F.)  SAP

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 11, page 404
Local Management Interface (LMI) types are Cisco, ANSI, and Q933A.

The correct answer(s):  A

Most routing protocols recognize that it is never useful to send information about a route back out the direction from which the original packet came.  This is an example of which routing technology?
A.)  Split Horizon
B.)  LMI
C.)  Triggered Updates
D.)  Poison Reverse
E.)  SYN, ACK
F.)  DLCI

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 7, page 218-219
The golden rule of Split Horizon:  Do not send any update packet back out the same interface that it was received or learned from.  Poison Reverse is typically used on larger networks, where a more aggressive routing loop solution is required.

The correct answer(s):  E

Which layer of the 7 layer model is responsible for representing the application information between 2 different OS's?   For example, converting ASCII to EBCIDIC.
A.)  Transport
B.)  Application
C.)  Physical
D.)  Session
E.)  Presentation
F.)  Network

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 17
The OSI Presentation layer formats the data, which includes encryption services.

The correct answer(s):  B

Which type of switching reads in the entire frame before forwarding it?
A.)  Tabling
B.)  Store-and-Forward
C.)  Inverse ARP
D.)  Fast Forward
E.)  Cut-Through
F.)  Routing

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 2, page 61-62
Store-and-Forward is slower, but it checks the frame for errors before forwarding.  This can actually help to improve overall network performance on noisy lines.

The correct answer(s):  C

Which OSI Reference Layer is concerned with path determination?
A.)  Datalink
B.)  Physical
C.)  Network
D.)  Transport
E.)  Session

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 20-25
The Network layer is where routing occurs.

The correct answer(s):  A

Which of the following are examples of the Datalink Layer?
A.)  LLC
B.)  SQL
C.)  TCP
D.)  Token Ring
E.)  IP

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 29-34
MAC and LLC are the sublayers of the Datalink layer.

The correct answer(s):  D

What is the standard ISDN term for a non-native analog telephone?
A.)  TE1
B.)  TA
C.)  LE
D.)  TE2
E.)  ET

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 11, page 412-413
Terminal Equipment 2 (TE2) does not support native digital ISDN.  The analog device will require an external analog to digital converter.

The correct answer(s):  A

Which Distance Vector characteristic can help to speed up convergence?
A.)  Triggered Updates.
B.)  Split Horizon.
C.)  Poison Reverse.
D.)  Hold Down timers.
E.)  Inverse ARP.

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 7, page 218-219
Instead of waiting on a pre-set periodic interval (before sending the routing table), DV routing protocols can send triggered updates to immediately notify the neighbor routers.  Hold down timers, Poison Reverse, and Split Horizon are features that are used to avoid routing loops.

The correct answer(s):  A

Which type of switching is considered to be 'wire speed?'
A.)  Cut-Through
B.)  Multiplexed
C.)  Inverted
D.)  Layer 4
E.)  Store and Forward
F.)  Layer 3

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 2, page 61-62
Cut-Through is the fastest mode of switching.  Store and Forward reads in the entire frame, confirms the frame is valid, and then forwards the frame onto the wire.  Cut-Through only checks the destination header in the frame and immediately forwards the frame onto the wire, without checking the frame to be valid.  Layer-3 switching is actually routing.

The correct answer(s):  D

The Datalink layer works with which of the following:
A.)  Packets
B.)  Bits
C.)  Globules
D.)  Frames
E.)  Segments
Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 29-33
Physical - bits
Datalink - frames
Network - packets
The correct answer(s):  D

What is a characteristic of Store and Forward switches?
A.)  They forward the frame before it is completely read.
B.)  They work at wire speed.
C.)  They are the same a Cut-Through switching.
D.)  They read the entire frame and check CRC before forwarding.
E.)  They decrease latency.

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 2, page 61-62
Store and Forward switch will not forward fragments.
The longer the frame, the longer the delay (latency) before the switch can forward.

The correct answer(s):  B

Station A is transmitting data to station B, and expects an acknowledgment after every 400 bytes.  After trasmitting data for a while, the two stations determine the line is reliable and change to expecting and acknowledgement every 600 bytes.
This is an example of (pick the best answer only):
A.)  BECN
B.)  Sliding Windows
C.)  Poison Reverse
D.)  Countdown timers
E.)  Split Horizon
F.)  Count to infinity

A TCP/IP 'window' is the amount of data (number of bytes) that the sending station will trasmit before expecting an acknowledgement back.
If the stations can change that window size on the fly, that is called a sliding window.  This is done to optimize performance.

Incorrect.
The correct answer(s):  A

Which device listed below provides clocking for the line?
A.)  DCE
B.)  CPE
C.)  CO
D.)  DTE
E.)  Demarc

The Data Circuit-terminating Equipment (DCE) is responsible for providing the clocking on the wire.
HINT:  When You see the 'C' in 'DCE', think 'Clocking' t.

The correct answer(s):  D

Which OSI Reference Layer controls application to application communication?
A.)  Datalink
B.)  Network
C.)  Transport
D.)  Session
E.)  Physical

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 16
The Session layer controls a conversation between applications.
The Transport layer controls communications between hosts.

The correct answer(s):  B C

The Datalink Layer is broken down into 2 layers, LLC and MAC.  The LLC establishes media independence and what else?
A.)  Provides Windowing.
B.)  Provides flow control.
C.)  Provides SAP's (Service Access Points).
D.)  The Datalink layer does not have sublayers.
E.)  Provides SAP's (Service Advertising Protocol).
F.)  RIP Updates.

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 30-31
OSI layer-2 SAP allows the upper layers to encapsulate multiple layer 3 protocols.
IPX SAP is a protocol used to advertise NetWare services every 60 seconds.

The correct answer(s):  F

When a Distance Vector routing protocol detects that a connected network has gone down, it sends out a special routing update packet, telling all directly connected routers that the distance to the dead network is infinity.  This is an example of which routing technology?
A.)  ICMP.
B.)  Only Link State routing protocols have this intelligence.
C.)  Triggered updates.
D.)  Garrison-4.
E.)  Split Horizon.
F.)  Poison Reverse.

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 7, page 218-219
Instead of just removing the route from the routing update, Poison Reverse sets the distance to 'infinity' (for IP RIP this is a hop count of 16).  This immediately makes the route invalid for all neighboring routers.

The correct answer(s):  A B C E

Which of the following would  be displayed by the command 'SHOW CDP NEIGHBOR DETAIL'?
A.)  The incoming/outgoing port.
B.)  The hardware platform.
C.)  One address per protocol.
D.)  Amount of Flash Memory Available
E.)  The routers hostname.
F.)  The subnet mask, if IP is configured.

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 8, page 294
CDP shows a lot of the same info that 'show version' does locally, but FLASH memory is not part of it.  The 'detail' keyword is optional, but even when used, IP subnet mask information is not displayed by CDP for IP interfaces.

The correct answer(s):  B C D E F

Which of the following are characteristics of UDP?
A.)  UDP is connection oriented.
B.)  UDP is used with TFTP.
C.)  UDP is unreliable.
D.)  UDP is connectionless.
E.)  UDP is at the transport layer.
F.)  UDP uses no acknowledgements.

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 3, page 84-90
UDP sends packets 'blind' down the network, and relies on upper-layer protocols to form connections and detect errors.  TCP is a connection-oriented procotol that can provide reliable transport.

The correct answer(s):  E

What is a characteristic of Store and Forward switches?
A.)  They work at wire speed.
B.)  They are the same as Cut-Through switching in 'prune' mode.
C.)  They forward based on transport layer info.
D.)  They forward the frame before it is completely read.
E.)  They increase latency.

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 2, page 61-62
Store and froward will not forward fragments.  The longer the packet, the longer the delay (latency) in the switch.  There is no such thing as 'prune' mode.

The correct answer(s):  C

The Internet Protocol (IP) occurs at what layer of the seven layer model?
A.)  Physical
B.)  Presentation
C.)  Network
D.)  Datalink
E.)  Session
F.)  Transport

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 3, page 91-92
IP is a routed protocol that occurs at layer 3.  Other layer 3 protocols include IPX, APPLETALK, and DECNET.

The correct answer(s):  E

In regards to TCP/IP, which class of address allows for the fewest valid Internet hosts?
A.)  D
B.)  E
C.)  Classes are not used in TCP/IP.
D.)  B
E.)  C
F.)  A

Class A = 16.7 million hosts
Class B = 65,534 hosts
Class C = 254 hosts

The correct answer(s):  A

For IPX, what is the DEFAULT Cisco Encapsulation on an Ethernet interface?
A.)  novell-ether
B.)  gns
C.)  snap
D.)  arpa
E.)  sap
F.)  dix

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 9, page 334
At the time when Cisco first supported IPX, Novell-Ether (Novell proprietary 802.3 'raw') was the default frame type for NetWare 2.x and 3.x file servers.  Now, Novell has changed their default frame type to 802.2 (which is really IEEE 802.3 Ethernet, with LLC 802.2 headers).
The correct answer(s):  C

Novell NetWare has an Ethernet frame type called  Ethernet_II.   What is the matching Cisco command line keyword for this encapsulation method?
A.)  dix
B.)  sap
C.)  arpa
D.)  gns
E.)  snap
F.)  novell-ether

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 9, page 334-335
Novell 802.2 = sap  (contains 802.2 LLC headers)
Novell 802.3 = novell-ether  (NetWare proprietary)
Ethernet_II = arpa  (the Internet standard)
snap = snap  (field type set to 'AA')

The correct answer(s):  A D

There are 2 types of PPP authentication supported by the Cisco IOS.  What are they?
A.)  PAP
B.)  PREDICTOR
C.)  MD5
D.)  CHAP
E.)  STACKER
F.)  MSCHAP

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 11, page 410
Router(config-if)#ppp authentication ?
  chap     Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
  pap      Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)

The correct answer(s):  B C

Which of the following are examples of the Transport Layer?
A.)  Token Ring
B.)  UDP
C.)  TCP
D.)  IP
E.)  SQL
F.)  LLC

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 20-25
TCP is connection oriented.
UDP is connectionless.

The correct answer(s):  B C E

Which of the following describe SMTP?
A.)  Used for downloading files to the router.
B.)  Used for sending e-mail.
C.)  Uses TCP.
D.)  Uses UDP.
E.)  Uses port 25.
F.)  Used for managing IP devices.

Send / Simple (depending on literature) Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP) is used for delivering mail to other mail servers.  It uses port 25, and relies on TCP.
POP 3 (Post Office Protocol versio 3) is used for retrieving mail from mail servers to clients.

The correct answer(s):  E

What is the standard ISDN term for a native ISDN modem?
A.)  ET
B.)  LE
C.)  TE2
D.)  TE3
E.)  TA

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 11, page 412-413
The marketing term 'ISDN modem' was created to help sell the ISDN idea to America.  There is no such thing as an analog modulator demodulator for digital ISDN.  The Terminal Adapter (TA) allows you to connect a PC to a digital ISDN line directly.  In the real world, ISDN is digital, modems are analog.

The correct answer(s):  A B C E

Which of the following are Transport layer protocols?
A.)  UDP
B.)  TCP
C.)  NBP
D.)  IP
E.)  SPX

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 3, page 84-90
TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) and UDP are used by TCP/IP.
SPX (Sequenced Packet Exchange) is used with IPX.
NBP (Name Binding Protocol) is used with Appletalk.

The correct answer(s):  E

When determining whether or not to route a LAN segment, which rule of thumb do you use?
A.)  60/40
B.)  50/50
C.)  80/20
D.)  90/10
E.)  70/30

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 2, page 55
The industry standard rule is 80/20, which means 80% local, 20% over the router.
However, according to Cisco's online documentation, the answer is 70/30.
This makes sense, considering more and more traffic is starting to go from the desktop to an ulimate destination outside the local are network, such as the Internet.

The correct answer(s):  C D

Which of the following are examples of the Session Layer?
A.)  TCP
B.)  LLC
C.)  SQL
D.)  NFS
E.)  Token Ring

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 18-20
Session layer examples include Netbios Names, SQL, NFS, X Windows, and RPC.

The correct answer(s):  F

Which layer of the 7 layer model provides services to the Application layer over the Session layer connection?
A.)  Transport
B.)  Application
C.)  Session
D.)  Network
E.)  Datalink
F.)  Presentation

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 18-19
The OSI Presentation layer is sandwiched between the Application and Session layers.

The correct answer(s):  E

What type of switching creates variable latency through the switch?
A.)  Cut-Through
B.)  Inverted
C.)  Layer 4
D.)  Multiplexed
E.)  Store and Forward

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 2, page 61-62
DEFINITION:  Latency = Delay.
Because a store and forward switch reads the whole frame before forwarding,
a larger frame takes longer than a shorter frame.

The correct answer(s):  E

The network portion of an address typically represents a:
A.)  Router
B.)  Ethernet MAC address.
C.)  Computer
D.)  Host
E.)  Segment

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 4, page 119-121
Every network segment is represented by a network or subnetwork address.

The correct answer(s):  D

The Physical layer works with which of the following:
A.)  Segments
B.)  Globules
C.)  Packets
D.)  Bits
E.)  Frames

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 34
Physical - bits
Datalink - frames
Network - packets

The correct answer(s):  D

Which of the following is an example of the Network Layer?
A.)  LLC
B.)  SQL
C.)  Token Ring
D.)  IPX
E.)  SPX

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 25-29
Most protocol suites have differnet OSI layer protocols within them.  At layer 3,
IP is for TCP/IP.  TCP is layer 4.
IPX is for IPX/SPX.  SPX is layer 4.
DDP is for Appletalk
The correct answer(s):  E

When setting up a frame-relay network between a Cisco router and a non-Cisco router, what encapsulation type should you use?
A.)  SAP
B.)  CISCO
C.)  IANA
D.)  Apollo
E.)  IETF
F.)  Q933A

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 11, page 403
The Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) encapsulation method is the standard encapsulation type for Frame Relay. Cisco routers default to the CISCO encapsulation method, because it was created before there was a standard.

The correct answer(s):  A

A user device that connects to a DCE must be which of the following?
A.)  DTE
B.)  CPE
C.)  Demarc
D.)  DCE
E.)  CO

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 11, page 389
DTE's are the router side, and receive clocking.
DCE's are the DSU/CSU side, and provide clocking.
It may or may not be Customer Premises equipment.

The correct answer(s):  D

What does the parameter -- LOG -- do on an IPX access list?
A.)  The log keyword is not a valid option.
B.)  Read the LOG to figure out what traffic to deny.
C.)  Logs the creation of the access list.
D.)  Logs IPX access control list violations whenever a packet matches a particular access list entry.
E.)  Ensures the IPX protocol places a log in the fireplace.

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 10, page 374
Router(config)#access-list 900 deny any ?
  log           Log matches against this entry

The correct answer(s):  A

Given the global configuration commands:
'banner motd #'
'Hello #'
When would the message be displayed?
A.)  The message of the day banner shows up before  login.
B.)  The message of the day banner shows up during logoff.
C.)  These commands are not the right syntax for MOTD.
D.)  Message of the day banners are displayed upon entering global config mode.
E.)  Message of the day banners are not possible.
F.)  The message of the day would be, 'Hello #'

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 5, page 166
Message of the day banners are displayed when a user logs on to the router.  In the example above, the '#' is the unique delimiting (terminating) character.  In this way, banners can have multiple lines, terminated not by hitting <ENTER>, but rather by the chosen (unique) delimiting character.
The correct answer(s):  A
Which ISDN specification deals with call Setup and Teardown?
A.)  Q-Series
B.)  J-Series
C.)  I- Series
D.)  World Series
E.)  F-Series

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 11, page 413
The 2 most important ISDN specifications are Q & I:
Q = Call setup and teardown.
I = Concepts and terminology.

The correct answer(s):  A

All equipment located at the customers site is called:
A.)  CPE
B.)  CO
C.)  DCE
D.)  Demarc
E.)  DTE

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 11, page 389
CPE - Customer Premise Equipment

The correct answer(s):  D

Which layer allows multiple Ethernet devices to uniquely identify one another on the Datalink layer?
A.)  Transport
B.)  Session
C.)  Network
D.)  Datalink - MAC Sublayer
E.)  Datalink -  LLC Sublayer

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 29-33
Ethernet MAC addresses are 48 bits long, and provide a unique hardware identifier.

The correct answer(s):  A C E

Which of the following are examples of ICMP?
A.)  Traceroute
B.)  Web Browsing
C.)  Ping
D.)  Telnet
E.)  Destination Unreachable message from a router
F.)  Inverse Tunnels

Ping and Traceroute are used by ICMP for Testing.
Destination Unreachable messages are generated by a router when it does not have a route to the network.

The correct answer(s):  C

Novell NetWare has an Ethernet frame type called  Ethernet_SNAP.   What is the matching Cisco command line keyword for this encapsulation method?
A.)  arpa
B.)  sap
C.)  snap
D.)  gns
E.)  dix
F.)  novell-ether

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 9, page 334-335
Novell 802.2 = sap  (contains 802.2 LLC headers)
Novell 802.3 = novell-ether  (NetWare proprietary)
Ethernet_II = arpa  (the Internet standard)
snap = snap  (field type set to 'AA')
The correct answer(s):  F
Given the Novell IPX address    1aceb0b.0000.0c12.3456  which part is the network portion of the address?
A.)  0000
B.)  1
C.)  3456
D.)  1ace
E.)  0000.0c12.3456
F.)  1aceb0b

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 9, page 329
IPX addresses are 80 bits total: The first section of the address is the network portion, the last 3 groups of numbers are the host.

The correct answer(s):  F

In version 11.3 of the IOS, a Cisco router configured for frame-relay can automatically detect the LMI type.  What is this known as?
A.)  Psychic
B.)  ESP
C.)  Inverse ARP
D.)  Hello
E.)  Reverse ARP
F.)  Autosense

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 11, page 404
Autosense allows the router to determine which LMI type the frame relay switch is using.  Options include CISCO, ANSI, and Q933A.

The correct answer(s):  C

What type of Ethernet operation allows only one entity to transmit at a time?  For example, if someone else is transmitting, they must wait.
A.)  Full-Duplex
B.)  Dual-Duplex
C.)  Half-Duplex
D.)  Latex
E.)  Quarter-Duplex
F.)  Suplex

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chatper 2, page 65
Half-Duplex is like a one-lane bridge.  If one car is going over the bridge, all other cars must wait on the other side before crossing.

The correct answer(s):  C F

Which of the following are examples of the Application Layer?
A.)  LLC
B.)  Token Ring
C.)  Spreadsheet
D.)  TCP
E.)  IP
F.)  Word Processor

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 16-17
Pretty much any end-user program is an example of the Application Layer.

The correct answer(s):  B E

Which technologies listed below help prevent network loops in a switched (bridged) environment?
A.)  Store-and-Forward
B.)  IEEE 802.1d
C.)  Diijstra Algorithm
D.)  Cut-Through
E.)  Spanning Tree Protocol
F.)  Routing

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 2, page 62-63
The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) eliminates loops by disabling the port(s) that are causing the briding loop.  This is also called putting a port into 'blocking' mode.  The industry standard for STP is IEEE 802.1d

The correct answer(s):  A

Which OSI Reference Layer controls end-to-end (host to host) communication?
A.)  Transport
B.)  Physical
C.)  Datalink
D.)  Network
E.)  Session

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 20-25
The Session layer controls a conversation between applications.
The Transport layer controls communications between hosts.

The correct answer(s):  A

What is the first step in data encapsulation?
A.)  User information is converted into data.
B.)  Frames are put into bits.
C.)  Data is converted into segments.
D.)  Segments are converted into datagrams and packets.
E.)  Packets are put into logical frame.

The Five steps to data encapsulation (IN ORDER):
1) User information is converted into data.
2) Data is converted into segments.
3) Segments are converted into datagrams and packets.
4) Packets are put into logical frame.
5) Frames are put into bits.

The correct answer(s):  C

We know that TCP provides connection oriented services, what else does it provide?
A.)  FECN & BECN
B.)  Path discovery.
C.)  Flow control and error checking.
D.)  Name resolution.
E.)  File manipulation.

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 20-25
The transmission control protocol uses acknowledgements and windowing to handle flow control and error checking.

The correct answer(s):  D

With distance vector routing protocols, it is never useful to send the same routing update packet back out the same interface that it was learned.  This concept is called what?
A.)  Holddown timers
B.)  Poison Reverse
C.)  Count to infinity
D.)  Split Horizon
E.)  Link State

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 7, page 218-219
Split horizon is the concept of:  'Don't tell me what I just told you.'

The correct answer(s):  A B C D

Which of the following are ways to provide login access to a router?
A.)  HTTP
B.)  Console
C.)  Telnet
D.)  Aux Port
E.)  SNMP
F.)  LLC

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 5, page 157
You can connect via Aux, Console, Telnet, or HTTP to a Cisco router.
SNMP can support Community (password protected) SET and PUT commands, but you can not issue a command line interface command with it.

The correct answer(s):  A C

What two types of PPP data compression are available using Cisco IOS?
A.)  Predictor
B.)  DoubleSpace
C.)  Stacker
D.)  PAP
E.)  ZIP
F.)  CHAP

Stacker and predictor have similar compression rates.
Stacker uses more CPU, while predictor uses more RAM.

The correct answer(s):  A

In regards to the OSI seven-layer model, at which layer is EBCDIC and ASCII?
A.)  Presentation
B.)  Application
C.)  Transport
D.)  Session
E.)  Datalink
F.)  Network

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 17-18
The OSI Presentation layer includes EBCIDIC, ASCII, PICT, GIF, MIDI, and MPEG.
Encryption can also occur at this layer.

The correct answer(s):  B

Which of the following are examples of the Transport Layer?
A.)  SQL
B.)  UDP
C.)  IP
D.)  LLC
E.)  ARP

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 20-25
TCP is connection oriented.
UDP is connectionless.

The correct answer(s):  D

Given the global configuration command 'banner motd #7 Hello #', what do the '#' symbols represent?
A.)  Escape sequence to exit the menu.
B.)  Nothing, just part of the banner.
C.)  Tic Tac Toe Macro.
D.)  Delimiting Character
E.)  Message border character.
F.)  Number of times message to be displayed.

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 5, page 166
Delimiting characters allow you to have a message the is more than one line.  You simply type as many lines as you want, ending with the delimiting (terminating) character.

The correct answer(s):  B

There is a process in Frame-Relay where LMI resolves an IP address from a DLCI number.  What is this called?
A.)  aarp
B.)  inverse arp
C.)  rarp
D.)  automap
E.)  reverse arp
F.)  arp

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 11, page 406-407
Inverse Arp maps the Local DLCI number to the remote IP address.
Inverse Arp is a function of LMI.

The correct answer(s):  A F

When setting up a WAN network, everything outside of the Demarc is not owned by the customer.  Which of the following are not owned by the customer?
A.)  The T1 line.
B.)  LAN
C.)  The Router
D.)  DTE
E.)  PC's
F.)  CO

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 11, page 389
The Central Office is the where phone people work.
The Telco maintains ownership of its physical wiring, and leases their use to their customers.

The correct answer(s):  B

You want to segment a network.  The network is running SNA and Netbios.  Which device should NOT be used to segment the network?
A.)  A store and forward switch.
B.)  A router.
C.)  A Catalyst 5000.
D.)  A cut-through switch.
E.)  A bridge.

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 2, page 56-57
SNA and Netbios are non-routable, you should bridge them.
The most correct answer for this question is 'A Router.'
The purpose here is to recognize that Layer 2 protocols can not be routed.
However, there are ways to turn a non-routable protocol into a routable protocol via a protocol gatewatay, DLSW+, RSRB and other technologies.

The correct answer(s):  E

Name a major component of the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) to negotiate and set up control options on the WAN data link.
A.)  RFC 1661
B.)  High Level Datalink Protocol (HDLC)
C.)  Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
D.)  SS7
E.)  Link Control Protocol (LCP)

LCP negotiates many of the PPP settings during call setup.

The correct answer(s):  D E

Which of the following is an example of the Physical Layer?
A.)  SQL
B.)  IP
C.)  LLC
D.)  Token Ring
E.)  FDDI
F.)  TCP

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 34
FDDI, Token Ring and Ethernet are all physical layer framing standards.

The correct answer(s):  B E

Cisco's implementation of ISDN BRI has multiprotocol support, SNMP MIB support,  and what other features?
A.)  Call waiting
B.)  Compression
C.)  ADSL
D.)  1.544 Mbps
E.)  Call screening
F.)  Negative 'G' support

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 11, page 413
Caller ID is part of ISDN and you can screen calls based on it.
Cisco can compress with Stacker or Predictor.

The correct answer(s):  C

The Network layer works with which of the following:
A.)  Globules
B.)  Bits
C.)  Packets
D.)  Segments
E.)  Frames

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 25-27
Physical - bits
Datalink - frames
Network - packets

The correct answer(s):  A

An optional parameter on an IPX access is the 'LOG' parameter.  This records access-list violations when a packet matches.  What else does the 'LOG' option do?
A.)  Records the number of times  that a packet matches the list.
B.)  Return a message to user who is denied access the by list.
C.)  Notifies an SNMP Agent.
D.)  Saves the log to NVRAM.
E.)  Send an SNMP Trap.

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 10, page 374
It will record to the log.  By default a Cisco router logs to RAM and can display the offense to the console, which is not recommended.  It is suggested that you log to a syslog server, for less router CPU impact.
The correct answer(s):  B
Which is not a common problem with Distance-Vector routing?
A.)  Slow convergence.
B.)  Complex configuration.
C.)  Routing loops.
D.)  Periodic updates can slow convergence.
E.)  Counting to infinity.

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 7, page 215
Easy Config:
Router(config)#router rip
Router(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0
Router(config-router)#  
That’s it!  (Remember that the network is followed by the CLASSFUL address.)

The correct answer(s):  E

Which routing protocols uses connection-oriented routing updates?
A.)  IGRP
B.)  UDP
C.)  RIP
D.)  IP
E.)  BGP

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 7, page 228-229
BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) uses TCP to reliably deliver its routing updates.

The correct answer(s):  C

At which layer of the OSI Reference Model do bridges operate?
A.)  Physcial
B.)  Session
C.)  Datalink
D.)  Transport
E.)  Network

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 2, page 56-57
Bridges and switches work at layer 2 and forward frames based on the MAC address.
Repeaters work at the physical layer.

The correct answer(s):  B

Where is the point between the customers site and the phone carrier that responsibility changes?
A.)  CO
B.)  Demarc
C.)  DCE
D.)  DTE
E.)  CPE

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 11, page 389
The DEMARCATION POINT (Demarc) in North America is between the customers CSU/DSU and the Local Telco Office, because Americans own the DSU/CSU.
Elsewhere in the world, the Demarc is between the Router and the CSU/DSU, because outside the USA the Telco owns the DSU/CSU.
The correct answer(s):  D
Novell NetWare has an Ethernet frame type called  Ethernet_802.2.   What is the matching Cisco command line keyword for this encapsulation method?
A.)  gns
B.)  arpa
C.)  snap
D.)  sap
E.)  novell-ether
F.)  dix

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 9, page 334-335
Novell 802.2 = sap  (contains 802.2 LLC headers)
Novell 802.3 = novell-ether  (NetWare proprietary)
Ethernet_II = arpa  (the Internet standard)
snap = snap  (field type set to 'AA')

The correct answer(s):  D F

Which of the following is an example of the Physical Layer?
A.)  TCP
B.)  ARP
C.)  IP
D.)  FDDI
E.)  LLC
F.)  Fast Ethernet

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 34
FDDI, Token Ring and Ethernet are all physical layer framing standards.

The correct answer(s):  A D E F

Which of the following is true regarding standard ISDN BRI service?
A.)  ISDN BRI B channels are typically 64K.
B.)  ISDN BRI can handle only voice.
C.)  ISDN BRI can handle only data.
D.)  ISDN BRI has 2B and 1D channels.
E.)  ISDN BRI D channels are 16K.
F.)  ISDN BRI can handle voice and data.

2  64K B channels carry the data.
1  16K D channel is used for control.
Note:  In certain parts of the world, it is possible that the 'B' channels are only 56k each instead of 64k each.

The correct answer(s):  A

In distance-vector routing, there is a problem known as the 'count to infinity' problem.  What is the most direct solution to this?
A.)  Defining a Maximum.
B.)  You can not solve the 'count to infinity' problem with a distance vector protocol.
C.)  Poison Reverse.
D.)  Triggered Updates.
E.)  Split Horizon.

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 7, page 218-219
The most direct solution to the count to infinity problem is to lower what infinity is.
For RIP, the default maximum number of hops is 16.  It takes a lot less time to count to 16 than infinity.

The correct answer(s):  D F

Which of the following are examples of the Network Layer?
A.)  Token Ring
B.)  LLC
C.)  SQL
D.)  IP
E.)  TCP
F.)  IPX

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 25-29
Other Network Layer protocols also include Appletalk and DECnet.  TCP is considered to be at a higher Layer, because it provides guaranteed data delivery.

The correct answer(s):  A

Which type of switching reads just the address portion of the frame and then immediately starts forwarding it?
A.)  Cut-Through
B.)  Store-and-Forward
C.)  Tabling
D.)  Routing
E.)  Inverse ARP
F.)  Fast Forward

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 2, page 61-62
Cut-Through is fast, but it does not read the entire frame and perform any error checking before forwarding.  This can result in forwarding errors, such as fragments.

The correct answer(s):  A

Which feature of PPP (Point to Point Protocol) allows the router to bind multiple channels together, to form a single logical channel?
A.)  multi-link ppp
B.)  multi-channel ppp
C.)  can't be done
D.)  omni-ppp
E.)  plp

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 11, page 410
Multilink PPP binds separate physical lines into one logical line.  This feature is especially useful for ISDN BRI, where you are provided 2 different circuits at 64k each (so you can bind them together for 128k).

The correct answer(s):  A B C E

Which of the following are solutions to the problems encountered with Distance-Vector routing?
A.)  Defining a Maximum
B.)  Poison Reverse
C.)  Triggered Updates
D.)  Shortest path first algorithm.
E.)  Split Horizon

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 7, page 218-219
The Shortest Path First (SPF) algorithm is used only with Link-State protocols such as OSPF.

The correct answer(s):  D E

Classful routing protocols do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.  Which of the following routing protocols are considered classful?
A.)  EIGRP
B.)  OSPF
C.)  TCP
D.)  IGRP
E.)  RIP
F.)  IP

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 7, page 214
IGRP & RIP do NOT includes the subnet mask in their routing updates.
OSPF & EIGRP are classless routing protocols and DO INCLUDE the subnet mask in updates.
TCP and IP are not routing protocols.

The correct answer(s):  B

What is the standard ISDN term for a native ISDN telephone?
A.)  ET
B.)  TE1
C.)  TE2
D.)  LE
E.)  TA

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 11, page 412-413
Terminal Equipment 1 (TE1) understands what native digital ISDN is, and has built-in analog to digital converters.

The correct answer(s):  B

PICT & JPEG are examples of what layer in the OSI seven layer model?
A.)  Transport
B.)  Presentation
C.)  Application
D.)  Datalink
E.)  Network
F.)  Session

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 17-18
The OSI Presentation layer includes EBCIDIC, ASCII, PICT, GIF, MIDI, and MPEG.
Encryption can also occur at this layer.

The correct answer(s):  B D

Which of the following is an example of the Session Layer?
A.)  TCP
B.)  SQL
C.)  IP
D.)  X-Windows
E.)  Token Ring
F.)  LLC

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 18-20
Netbios Names, SQL, NFS, X-Windows are examples of the Session layer.

The correct answer(s):  B

Which global configuration command will tell the router to load the IOS file 'IOS_filename' from the Network File server at 1.2.3.4 during the next boot?
A.)  boot system flash IOS_filename 1.2.3.4
B.)  boot system tftp IOS_filename 1.2.3.4
C.)  config-register 0x0 1.2.3.4
D.)  boot system rom 1.2.3.4
E.)  This can not be done, only the first file in flash can be used.

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 8, page 277
Router(config)#boot system ?
  WORD   TFTP filename or URL
  flash  Boot from flash memory
  mop    Boot from a Decnet MOP server
  rcp    Boot from a server via rcp
  rom    Boot from rom
  tftp   Boot from a tftp server

The correct answer(s):  F

At what layer of the OSI reference model does FRAME-RELAY map to?
A.)  Session
B.)  Physical
C.)  Network
D.)  Presentation
E.)  Transport
F.)  Datalink
Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 11, page 402
Remember, layer 2 deals with 'frames', and Frame-Relay is purely a layer 2 procotol.

The correct answer(s):  E

X.25 is  characterized by layer 2 identifiers, and what else?
A.)  Virtual Lan's
B.)  Session Layer
C.)  Transport Layer
D.)  Routing Updates
E.)  PVC's

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 11, page 396
Permament Virtual Circuits and Layer 2 identifies are typical in X.25.

The correct answer(s):  B D

Which of the following is an example of the Network Layer?
A.)  Token Ring
B.)  RARP
C.)  LLC
D.)  DDP
E.)  TCP

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 25-29
The following two are layer 3 protocols:
DDP - Datagram Delivery Protocol. AppleTalk network layer protocol that is responsible for delivery of datagrams.
RARP - Reverse Address Resolution Protocol. Protocol in the TCP/IP the allow a client to get assigned an IP address based on it's own MAC address.

The correct answer(s):  D

What is an advantage of LAN segmentation?
A.)  Increases broadcasts.
B.)  Increases collisions.
C.)  Provides more protocol support.
D.)  Decreases broadcasts.
E.)  Routing protocol support.

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 2, page 55
Broadcast containment is a primary motive for LAN segmentation.

The correct answer(s):  A

What does the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) provide?
A.)  Connectionless datagram service.
B.)  FECN & BECN
C.)  Flow control and error checking.
D.)  Name resolution.
E.)  Path discovery.

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 3, page 88-90
UDP is connectionless, and does not provide error checking.  But remember, error checking can occur at other layers too.

The correct answer(s):  A

Which OSI Reference Layer is concerned with logical addressing?
A.)  Network
B.)  Transport
C.)  Datalink
D.)  Physical
E.)  Session

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 20-25
Datalink is physical (hardware) addressing.
Network is logical (software) addressing.

The correct answer(s):  A

What layer can optionally support reliability?
A.)  Transport
B.)  IP
C.)  Physical
D.)  Network
E.)  Sub-physical layer

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 20-25
The Transport Layer:
Segments upper-layer applications.
Establishes an end-to-end connection.
Sends segments from one end host to another.
Optionally, ensures data reliability.

The correct answer(s):  A F

Which of the following is an example of the Datalink Layer?
A.)  LLC
B.)  TCP
C.)  SQL
D.)  IPX
E.)  Token Ring
F.)  MAC

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 29-33
MAC (media access control) and LLC (logical link control) are both layer 2 protocols.

The correct answer(s):  C

What is the last step in data encapsulation?
A.)  User information is converted into data.
B.)  Segments are converted into datagrams and packets.
C.)  Frames are put into bits.
D.)  Data is converted into segments.
E.)  Packets are put into logical frame.

The Five steps to data encapsulation (IN ORDER):
1) User information is converted into data.
2) Data is converted into segments.
3) Segments are converted into datagrams and packets.
4) Packets are put into logical frame.
5) Frames are put into bits.

The correct answer(s):  F

Which switching technology can reduce the size of a broadcast domain?
A.)  Cut-Through
B.)  Store-and-Forward
C.)  Spanning Tree Protocol
D.)  RARP
E.)  ARP
F.)  VLAN
Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 2, page 64
VLAN's are logical ways to break up a large broadcast domain.
To get from VLAN to VLAN you must have a router.

The correct answer(s):  E

Station A is transmitting data to station B faster that station B can handle it.  When station B's buffer fills up, it send out a message to station A to stop sending data.  After B empties out its buffer, station B sends a message to station A to start sending data again.
This is most directly an example of (pick the best answer only):
A.)  Poison Reverse
B.)  Connectionless protocol
C.)  Windowing
D.)  Connection oriented protocol
E.)  Flow Control
F.)  Split Horizon

Flow control is when a station is being overloaded with data abd tells the other station to stop for a while, so the receiving station can process the data that it has in its buffer.

The correct answer(s):  D

The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) Basic Rate Interface (BRI) provides which of the following?
A.)  1.544 Mbps
B.)  23B + 1D Channel
C.)  24B + 1D Channel
D.)  2B + 1D Channel
E.)  23B + the Disney Channel

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 11, page 413
Each B (Bearer) Data channel is 64K
The D (Control) channel is 16K

The correct answer(s):  B

Which layer manages protocol access to the Network layer?
A.)  Datalink - MAC Sublayer
B.)  Datalink -  LLC Sublayer
C.)  Transport
D.)  Session
E.)  Network

Sybex CCNA Study Guide:  Chapter 1, page 34
Having two Datalink sublayers provides physical media independence.
The MAC sublayer encapsulates to the Physical Layer.
The LLC sublayer encapsulates to the Network Layer.